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UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper I – Answer Key (All 100 Questions, Explanations & Sources)
Comprehensive, authentic, and up-to-date answer key for UPSC/IAS Prelims 2025 GS I (General Studies) – including all 100 questions, detailed explanations, and reliable sources. Ideal for aspirants seeking clarity and accuracy.
Updated for best revision and quick reference.
Questions 1–10: Modern Indian History, Art & Culture, Geography
1
“Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
(a) the Champaran Satyagraha
(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi Correct
(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement
(a) the Champaran Satyagraha
(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi Correct
(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement
Explanation: Gandhiji made a similar remark about sedition during the Civil Disobedience Movement. After breaking the Salt Law at Dandi in 1930, Gandhi openly challenged the British legal system. The phrase “Sedition has become the creed of the Congress” was used during his trial in 1922 but is popularly associated with his non-violent resistance, especially during the Salt Satyagraha.
Source: Gandhi Heritage Portal, NCERT Class 12 – Modern India
2
The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze Correct
(d) gold
(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze Correct
(d) gold
Explanation: The ‘Dancing Girl’ is a world-renowned bronze sculpture from the Indus Valley Civilization, dated around 2500 BCE. It was made using the lost-wax casting technique.
Source: CCRT Visual Arts, NCERT Class 6 – Our Pasts I
3
Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant Correct
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah
(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant Correct
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah
Explanation: After the Chauri Chaura incident of 1922, where a violent clash led to the death of policemen and many people were arrested and sentenced to death or life imprisonment, Madan Mohan Malaviya provided legal defence for the accused. He was assisted by Krishna Kant Malaviya (his son). Their legal intervention played a key role in saving many of the accused from the death penalty.
Source: https://malaviyamission.org/AboutMahamana/Legal-Luminary-Detail.php?id=3
4
Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
(a) The Poona Pact Correct
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
(a) The Poona Pact Correct
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation: After the Poona Pact of 1932, signed with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Gandhi focused deeply on Harijan upliftment and launched several initiatives including the Harijan Sevak Sangh.
Source: NCERT Class 12 – Modern India, Gandhi Heritage Portal
5
Consider the following fruits:
I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three Correct
(d) None
I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three Correct
(d) None
Explanation: Portuguese introduced several crops and fruits to India, including papaya, pineapple, and guava from the Americas during their colonial ventures in the 16th and 17th centuries.
Source: NCERT Class 8 – Our Pasts III, Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
6
Consider the following countries:
I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
(a) All the five
(b) Only four
(c) Only three Correct
(d) Only two
I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
(a) All the five
(b) Only four
(c) Only three Correct
(d) Only two
Explanation: Australia: 3 official + multiple unofficial time zones; Brazil: 4 time zones. UK, New Zealand, Denmark: One each.
Source: timeanddate.com, CIA World Factbook
7
Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Correct
(d) Neither I nor II
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Correct
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation: The International Date Line runs between Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (USA), so despite being geographically close, they are a day apart.
Source: National Geographic, CIA World Factbook
8
Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?
(a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker Correct
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar
(a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker Correct
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar
Explanation: Periyar launched the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu to challenge Brahmanical dominance and promote equality for backward castes.
Source: NCERT Class 12 – Themes in Indian History, Tamil Nadu State Board History Book
9
Consider the following pairs:
Country – Resource-rich in
I. Botswana – Diamond
II. Chile – Lithium
III. Indonesia – Nickel
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three Correct
(d) None
Country – Resource-rich in
I. Botswana – Diamond
II. Chile – Lithium
III. Indonesia – Nickel
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three Correct
(d) None
Explanation: Botswana: Leading diamond producer. Chile: World's top lithium producer. Indonesia: Major exporter of nickel, especially for batteries.
Source: World Bank Reports, US Geological Survey 2024
10
Consider the following pairs:
Region – Country
I. Mallorca – Italy
II. Normandy – Spain
III. Sardinia – France
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None Correct
Region – Country
I. Mallorca – Italy
II. Normandy – Spain
III. Sardinia – France
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None Correct
Explanation: Mallorca: Located in Spain. Normandy: Located in France. Sardinia: Located in Italy. All given region-country pairs are incorrectly matched.
Source: Official Tourism Websites of France, Italy, and Spain; World Atlas
Questions 11–20: Economy, International Affairs, Science
11
Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
I. Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts = ₹80,000 – ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 crore
Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt capital receipts) = Cannot be calculated exactly without total expenditure
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments = ₹10,000 – ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crore
Fiscal Deficit isn’t definitively ₹10,000 crore from given info, hence statement II is incorrect.
Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt capital receipts) = Cannot be calculated exactly without total expenditure
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments = ₹10,000 – ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crore
Fiscal Deficit isn’t definitively ₹10,000 crore from given info, hence statement II is incorrect.
Source: Indian Budget Documents (indiabudget.gov.in)
12
India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan Correct
(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan Correct
Explanation:
INSTC is a 7,200 km long corridor to promote transport connectivity from India to Europe through Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia.
Source: Ministry of External Affairs (mea.gov.in), INSTC Agreement Overview – UNESCAP
13
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation:
Brazil uses sugarcane, which is more efficient in ethanol yield than corn (used in the USA), allowing Brazil to sometimes surpass US ethanol production.
Source: International Energy Agency (iea.org), USDA Global Ethanol Market Reports
14
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
(a) I only
(b) II only Correct
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
(a) I only
(b) II only Correct
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Wet-bulb temperature >35°C means body cannot cool itself → leads to death due to heat stress. Flooding/cyclones are unrelated to wet-bulb temperature directly.
Source: World Bank Climate Report, IPCC AR6 Report
15
A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
(a) ₹ 48,500 crores
(b) ₹ 51,500 crores Correct
(c) ₹ 58,500 crores
(d) None of the above
(a) ₹ 48,500 crores
(b) ₹ 51,500 crores Correct
(c) ₹ 58,500 crores
(d) None of the above
Explanation:
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments = ₹50,000 – ₹1,500 = ₹48,500
Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit + Interest = ₹50,000 + ₹1,500 = ₹51,500
Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit + Interest = ₹50,000 + ₹1,500 = ₹51,500
Source: Indian Budget Glossary – indiabudget.gov.in
16
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV Correct
(d) II, III and IV
I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV Correct
(d) II, III and IV
Explanation:
I (₹4,800 cr grant), III (₹45,000 cr for Agri), IV (Tax effort criteria reintroduced) are correct. II is incorrect – 41% recommended, not 45%.
Source: Fifteenth Finance Commission Report, Volume 1 – fincomindia.nic.in
17
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
IBRD does lend to middle-income and credit-worthy poor countries. It does not work alone, but with IFC, IDA, etc. Established in 1944 to help Europe post-WWII.
Source: worldbank.org/ibrd
18
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) III only Correct
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) III only Correct
Explanation:
RTGS and NEFT both are now available 24x7 but RTGS may be down on maintenance days. No bank charges inward RTGS/NEFT transfers to customers.
Source: Reserve Bank of India (rbi.org.in) – FAQs on RTGS/NEFT
19
Consider the following countries:
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three Correct
(c) Only four
(d) All the five
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three Correct
(c) Only four
(d) All the five
Explanation:
As of 2024, UPI is operational for payments in UAE, Singapore, and France. Germany and Bangladesh are in discussion but not yet implemented.
Source: NPCI International Press Releases, Ministry of Electronics & IT
20
Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III Correct
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III Correct
Explanation:
All three objectives are part of the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in 2024 with ₹75,000 crore outlay to promote rooftop solar and skill development.
Source: pib.gov.in – MNRE Scheme Details
Questions 21–30: Environment, Polity, Science, Current Affairs
21
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Correct
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Correct
Explanation:
Rare earth elements like europium, yttrium, and terbium exhibit phosphorescence, making them useful in LEDs, television screens, and computer monitors.
Source: US Geological Survey (usgs.gov), Ministry of Mines India
22
Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
The National Rail Plan 2020 aims for a future-ready railway system by 2028. Kavach is indigenously developed in India, not with Germany. It uses RFID tags for position detection.
Source: PIB, Ministry of Railways
23
Consider the following space missions:
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan both include microgravity research modules. SpaDeX is focused on satellite docking experiments, not on microgravity.
Source: ISRO website, NASA Axiom Mission Brief
24
With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:
Aircraft Type – Description
I. Dornier-228 – Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 – Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III – Military transport aircraft
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
Aircraft Type – Description
I. Dornier-228 – Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 – Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III – Military transport aircraft
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Dornier-228 is correctly matched. IL-76 is not a supersonic combat aircraft; it's a strategic airlifter. C-17 is a heavy-lift military transport aircraft.
Source: Indian Air Force official website
25
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide Correct
(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride
(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide Correct
(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride
Explanation:
Cloud seeding uses silver iodide and potassium iodide as nucleating agents to condense moisture and induce artificial rainfall.
Source: India Meteorological Department (IMD), WMO publications
26
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only Correct
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only Correct
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Pardoning power under Article 72 can be judicially reviewed if exercised arbitrarily (Kehar Singh case). The President must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74).
Source: Constitution of India, Supreme Court Judgments
27
Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
Statement II is incorrect – no constitutional requirement for Speaker to resign from their party. Statements I and III are correct as per Article 94 and related rules.
Source: Constitution of India, Parliament Procedures Manual
28
Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Correct
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Correct
Explanation:
Statement I is wrong: Under 10th Schedule, the Speaker decides, not the President. Statement II is wrong: The word ‘political party’ is mentioned in the Tenth Schedule.
Source: Constitution of India – Tenth Schedule
29
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct Correct
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct Correct
Explanation:
State Governments have power to regulate minor minerals under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957. Central Government can notify what constitutes a minor mineral.
Source: MMDR Act, 1957 – Ministry of Mines
30
Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
(a) The European Union Correct
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization
(a) The European Union Correct
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization
Explanation:
The EU passed the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) in 2024, mandating member states to restore at least 20% of degraded land and sea ecosystems by 2030.
Source: European Parliament official website, europarl.europa.eu/news
Questions 31–40: Indian Polity, Constitutional Provisions, Economy
31
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
Ordinances can amend Central Acts (if Parliament has the power to legislate on the subject). Ordinances cannot abridge Fundamental Rights (Article 13 prohibits such laws). Back-dated implementation is possible unless it violates rights or causes injustice (judicially permissible).
Source: Article 123, Constitution of India; A.K. Roy vs Union of India, 1982
32
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, became a centrally administered territory in 1956 and later a State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, became a centrally administered territory in 1956 and later a State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
I. Wrong: Itanagar = named after Ita Fort, but Arunachal has one National Park (Namdapha).
II. Wrong: Nagaland was created by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, not via constitutional amendment.
III. Correct.
II. Wrong: Nagaland was created by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, not via constitutional amendment.
III. Correct.
Source: Ministry of Environment (Protected Areas list), Constitution Acts, MHA data
33
With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Inter-State Council: Article 263 – Constitutional Body.
National Security Council: Executive decision (1998) – not constitutional.
Zonal Councils: Created by State Reorganisation Act, 1956, not Constitution.
National Security Council: Executive decision (1998) – not constitutional.
Zonal Councils: Created by State Reorganisation Act, 1956, not Constitution.
Source: Constitution of India; PIB; MHA website
34
Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only Correct
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only Correct
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Article 163 provides for Governor’s discretion (e.g., for 5th Schedule areas, reservation of bills). President can only act on recommendation of Governor, not on own initiative.
Source: Articles 163, 200, 201 of Constitution; L.M. Singhvi Commentary
35
Consider the following pairs:
Provision in the Constitution – Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from Executive – The Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 50)
II. Valuing and preserving rich heritage of culture – The Fundamental Duties (Article 51A(f))
III. Prohibition of child labour below 14 years – The Fundamental Rights (Article 24)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three Correct
(d) None
Provision in the Constitution – Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from Executive – The Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 50)
II. Valuing and preserving rich heritage of culture – The Fundamental Duties (Article 51A(f))
III. Prohibition of child labour below 14 years – The Fundamental Rights (Article 24)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three Correct
(d) None
Explanation:
All are correctly matched as per respective Articles of the Constitution.
Source: Constitution of India (Articles 24, 50, 51A)
36
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only Correct
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only Correct
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
State Government does not lose executive power. President can declare changes to administration based on Governor's report under 5th Schedule.
Source: Fifth Schedule of Constitution; Ministry of Tribal Affairs
37
With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Organization – Union Ministry
I. National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of MSME
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Organization – Union Ministry
I. National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of MSME
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
National Automotive Board – under Ministry of Heavy Industries
Coir Board – under Ministry of MSME
Only III is correct.
Coir Board – under Ministry of MSME
Only III is correct.
Source: Official websites of respective ministries
38
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only Correct
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only Correct
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
Article 368(2) requires ratification by half the States for changes to:
Article 73/162 (executive power of States)
Article 153–162 (Governor-related provisions)
Article 73/162 (executive power of States)
Article 153–162 (Governor-related provisions)
Source: Article 368(2), Constitution of India
39
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III Correct
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III Correct
Explanation:
Article 361: Protection for President and Governors from court proceedings. Article 194: Privileges for legislators in State Assemblies.
Source: Constitution of India – Articles 194, 361
40
Consider the following activities:
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four Correct
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four Correct
Explanation:
PNGRB regulates production, refining, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing of petroleum and natural gas products under PNGRB Act, 2006.
Source: PNGRB Act, 2006; pngrb.gov.in
Questions 41–50: Local Governance, International Organizations, Sports
41
Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only Correct
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only Correct
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
I is correct only for states with population above 20 lakhs. II is incorrect: Minimum age is 21 years. III is incorrect: The Governor, not CM, constitutes the State Finance Commission (Article 243-I).
Source: Constitution of India – Part IX, Article 243
42
Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III Correct
(c) I and IV
(d) I only
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III Correct
(c) I and IV
(d) I only
Explanation:
BIMSTEC was established in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration, not Dhaka. Founding members: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Myanmar (not Nepal). Tourism sector lead is Thailand, not India.
Source: Official BIMSTEC website
43
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) II and IV only Correct
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) II and IV only Correct
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only
Explanation:
The jury is chaired by the Prime Minister, and includes the Leader of Opposition, Chief Justice of India, and others. President is not a member.
Source: Ministry of Culture – Gandhi Peace Prize Guidelines
44
GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I only
(d) I and II only Correct
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I only
(d) I and II only Correct
Explanation:
GAGAN, developed by ISRO & AAI, improves accuracy and reliability of GPS signals. It's mainly for aviation, but can be used for railways and roads too. So, III is incorrect.
Source: ISRO official website
45
Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Correct
(d) Neither I nor II
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Correct
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Both statements are correct as per February 2025 reports. The summit built on Bletchley (UK) and Seoul (South Korea) initiatives, and major democracies including the US and UK supported the declaration.
Source: UNESCO AI Summit Report 2025
46
Consider the following pairs:
International Declaration/Year
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism
III. International Year of Peace and Trust
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Correct
(d) All the four
International Declaration/Year
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism
III. International Year of Peace and Trust
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Correct
(d) All the four
Explanation:
I: Declared by UN for 2026 
II: Correct as per UNWTO resolution
III: Incorrect – 2021 was the International Year of Peace & Trust
IV: Proposed for 2029
II: Correct as per UNWTO resolution
III: Incorrect – 2021 was the International Year of Peace & Trust
IV: Proposed for 2029
47
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III Correct
(d) I only
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III Correct
(d) I only
Explanation:
Russia chaired 16th BRICS Summit in Kazan (2024). Indonesia is not a member of BRICS. Theme as mentioned is correct.
Source: MEA India and BRICS 2024 Summit Documents
48
Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) None of the above statements is correct Correct
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) None of the above statements is correct Correct
Explanation:
I is incorrect: Lokpal applies to all public servants, including those posted abroad.
II is incorrect: Chairperson can be a former CJI or an eminent person.
III is incorrect: Minimum age is not mandated by law.
IV is incorrect: Lokpal can investigate a sitting PM under limited conditions (Section 14).
II is incorrect: Chairperson can be a former CJI or an eminent person.
III is incorrect: Minimum age is not mandated by law.
IV is incorrect: Lokpal can investigate a sitting PM under limited conditions (Section 14).
Source: Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
49
Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:
I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II and III only Correct
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II and III only Correct
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
The event was held in Pune, Maharashtra, not Delhi
Both Indian men and women won against Nepal with stated scores
Both Indian men and women won against Nepal with stated scores
Source: Sports Authority of India (SAI), March 2024
50
Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Correct
(d) Neither I nor II
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Correct
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Gukesh became the youngest player to win Candidates Tournament 2024, not Chess Olympiad—but in the UPSC context, it's accepted. Abhimanyu Mishra became GM at 12 years 4 months.
Source: FIDE, Times of India (April 2024), ESPN Chess Report
Questions 51–60: Finance, Economics, Geography, Environment
51
With reference to investments, consider the following:
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Explanation:
Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) include hedge funds and venture capital funds. Stocks and bonds are mainstream investments, not classified as AIFs.
Source: SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds Regulations, 2012)
52
Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only Correct
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II and V
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only Correct
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II and V
Explanation:
RBI earns income via Open Market Operations (I) and Forex operations (II). It does not manage pensions, does not lend to private companies, and printing currency is a cost, not income.
Source: RBI Annual Report, Budget Documents
53
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
Organization – Some of its functions – It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement – Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 – Internal Security Division–I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence – Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. DG Systems and Data Management – Big data analytics to aid tax officers – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
How many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
Organization – Some of its functions – It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement – Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 – Internal Security Division–I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence – Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. DG Systems and Data Management – Big data analytics to aid tax officers – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
How many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Directorate of Enforcement works under Ministry of Finance, not Home Ministry. Only II and III are correctly matched.
Source: Official websites of ED, DRI, and CBIC
54
Consider the following statements:
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Correct
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Correct
Explanation:
SEBI, not RBI, mandates BRSR for top 1000 listed companies. BRSR includes non-financial disclosures like ESG compliance. Hence, I is incorrect, and II is correct, but question asks which are correct, so the key is ambiguous; UPSC gave D as final.
Source: SEBI circular (May 2021)
55
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation:
Income from poultry, wool rearing etc. is taxable unless it's part of agricultural income. Hence, Statement I is incorrect. Rural agricultural land is excluded from the definition of capital asset—Statement II is correct. But UPSC marks (a) as correct, likely taking Statement I as broadly correct in rural context.
Source: Income Tax Act, Section 2(14), CBDT Guidelines
56
Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only Correct
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
India joined Minerals Security Partnership in 2023. India is not resource-rich in all 30 identified minerals. MMDR Act was amended in 2023 for central auction of 24 critical minerals.
Source: PIB (July 2023), Ministry of Mines
57
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and both of them explain Statement III
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II Correct
(c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(d) Only Statement II is correct
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and both of them explain Statement III
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II Correct
(c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(d) Only Statement II is correct
Explanation:
Bondholders are creditors, hence face lower risk. Their lower risk explains Statement I. Statement III is also correct, but not used in the logical flow of explanation here.
58
Consider the following statements:
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only Correct
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only Correct
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
SEBI does regulate financial advisors and warns retail investors. Hence, III is incorrect.
Source: SEBI reports, Economic Times, NSE Data
59
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I Correct
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I Correct
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Explanation:
Statement II: Correct – reuse, recycle → less raw material. Statement III: Only partially true. Statement II explains how circular economy helps lower emissions.
60
Consider the following statements:
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only Correct
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only Correct
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
I and II are true definitions of capital receipts. III is incorrect: Interest received is a revenue receipt, not a liability.
Source: Union Budget Glossary – indiabudget.gov.in
Questions 61–70: International Affairs, Geography, Environment, History
61
Consider the following countries:
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five Correct
(d) All the six
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five Correct
(d) All the six
Explanation:
Members of NATO (as of 2024): Bulgaria, Croatia, North Macedonia, Sweden (joined 2024), and Serbia is not a member. Austria maintains neutrality. Hence, five are NATO members.
Source: NATO official website (www.nato.int)
62
Consider the following countries:
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four Correct
(d) Only five
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four Correct
(d) Only five
Explanation:
Andes pass through: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela, Peru, Chile, Argentina. Brazil and Paraguay are not crossed by Andes. So, I, III, IV, VI → Four countries.
Source: National Geographic Atlas, Britannica
63
Consider the following water bodies:
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon
Through how many of them does the equator pass?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon
Through how many of them does the equator pass?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Lake Tanganyika: Yes, equator passes through.
Lake Tonlé Sap (Cambodia): No, it's north of the equator.
Patos Lagoon (Brazil): Yes, it lies very close to the equator in the south.
So, two water bodies. (Correction: Official UPSC key marks two, though Patos Lagoon is actually just south of the equator.)
Lake Tonlé Sap (Cambodia): No, it's north of the equator.
Patos Lagoon (Brazil): Yes, it lies very close to the equator in the south.
So, two water bodies. (Correction: Official UPSC key marks two, though Patos Lagoon is actually just south of the equator.)
64
Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III Correct
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III Correct
Explanation:
All statements are factually correct based on Spices Board of India reports.
Source: Spices Board of India (spicesboard.in)
65
Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III Correct
(d) II and III only
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III Correct
(d) II and III only
Explanation:
All three are key geological and mineralogical evidences cited by Wegener's Continental Drift Theory.
Source: NCERT Class 11 – Fundamentals of Physical Geography
66
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct Correct
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct Correct
Explanation:
Dust is higher in dry subtropical zones (e.g., Sahara, Thar). These areas have more dry winds, not less.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Geography – Atmosphere Chapter
67
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Correct
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Correct
Explanation:
Oceans retain heat; land loses it fast. Hence, isotherms bend accordingly. Statement II explains I.
Source: G.C. Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography
68
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I Correct
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I Correct
Explanation:
Chalk is porous and permeable. Clay is nearly impermeable and poorly porous. Both II and III explain I.
Source: G.C. Leong, NCERT Geography Class 11
69
Consider the following statements:
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below the freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III Correct
(d) II and III only
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below the freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III Correct
(d) II and III only
Explanation:
All three describe greenhouse effect and atmospheric insulation.
Source: NCERT Class 7–10 Science & Class 11 Geography
70
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Correct
(d) Neither I nor II
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II Correct
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission, under Department of Animal Husbandry, promotes indigenous breeds for rural development and conservation.
Source: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (gokulmission.gov.in)
Questions 71–80: History, Culture, Ancient India
71
Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only Correct
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only Correct
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Roy strongly supported rationalism and social reforms (e.g., abolition of Sati). He critiqued irrational traditions, though he valued some aspects of Vedantic philosophy. Statement I is misleading, as his admiration was selective and reform-oriented, not traditionalist.
Source: NCERT Class 12 – Themes in Indian History Part III, Bipin Chandra
72
Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:
I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Correct
(d) All the four
I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Correct
(d) All the four
Explanation:
I, II, IV were parts of the programme. III is incorrect: It was the renunciation, not retention, of titles and honours.
Source: NCERT Class 10 & 12 History, Bipin Chandra
73
The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was
(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes Correct
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes Correct
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Explanation:
The Araghatta was a traditional Persian wheel type water-lifting device.
Source: NCERT Class 6 History, ASI documentation
74
Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?
(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I Correct
(d) Simhavarman
(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I Correct
(d) Simhavarman
Explanation:
Mahendravarman I used titles like Vichitrachitta and Mattavilasa. However, UPSC marked Narasimhavarman I — this is debated. Possibly due to multiple inscriptions referencing overlapping titles.
Source: South Indian Inscriptions – ASI, Epigraphia Indica
75
Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta II Correct
(c) Kumaragupta I
(d) Skandagupta
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta II Correct
(c) Kumaragupta I
(d) Skandagupta
Explanation:
Faxian visited India between 399–414 CE, during the rule of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya).
Source: NCERT Class 12 – Themes in Indian History Part I
76
Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
(c) Rajendra I (Chola) Correct
(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
(c) Rajendra I (Chola) Correct
(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Explanation:
Rajendra Chola I sent naval expeditions to Southeast Asia around 1025 CE, defeating Srivijaya.
Source: NCERT Class 11 – Tamil Nadu History Book, Epigraphic records
77
With reference to ancient India (600–322 BCE), consider the following pairs:
Territorial region – River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka – Godavari
II. Kamboja – Vipas (Beas)
III. Avanti – Mahanadi
IV. Kosala – Sarayu
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Territorial region – River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka – Godavari
II. Kamboja – Vipas (Beas)
III. Avanti – Mahanadi
IV. Kosala – Sarayu
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Explanation:
I (Asmaka–Godavari) – Correct
II (Kamboja) – was in Afghanistan area, not near Vipas
III (Avanti) – associated with Narmada, not Mahanadi
IV (Kosala–Sarayu) – Correct
II (Kamboja) – was in Afghanistan area, not near Vipas
III (Avanti) – associated with Narmada, not Mahanadi
IV (Kosala–Sarayu) – Correct
Source: NCERT Class 12, Early States and Cities
78
The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
(a) Delhi
(b) Gwalior Correct
(c) Ujjain
(d) Lahore
(a) Delhi
(b) Gwalior Correct
(c) Ujjain
(d) Lahore
Explanation:
The Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was established in Gwalior in 1901 and later moved to Bombay.
Source: CCRT material (ccrtindia.gov.in)
79
Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the
(a) village-level administration
(b) district-level administration
(c) provincial administration Correct
(d) level of the central administration
(a) village-level administration
(b) district-level administration
(c) provincial administration Correct
(d) level of the central administration
Explanation:
These officials were in charge of provincial governance, as mentioned in Ashokan edicts.
Source: NCERT Class 12 – Themes in Indian History Part I, Ashokan Inscriptions
80
Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Correct
I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Correct
Explanation:
Objective of Swaraj was declared in Nagpur Session (1920) but phrased as “through peaceful and legitimate means” much later in 1930 Purna Swaraj declaration. The Non-Cooperation Movement did not include tax refusal at first—that came with Civil Disobedience Movement.
Source: Bipin Chandra – India’s Struggle for Independence
Questions 81–90: Science & Tech, Environment, Biology
81
Consider the following types of vehicles:
I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Only I. Full battery electric vehicles are mainstream alternative powertrain vehicles in use. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles and hybrids are still emerging and not classified under standard "alternative powertrain" in some taxonomies. However, other international classifications consider all three. Still, UPSC marks (a) as correct.
82
With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Fixed-wing UAVs cannot do vertical landing or hover. Battery-only is not mandatory—some use hybrid fuel (e.g., gasoline). So none of the statements are fully correct, yet II and III could be considered correct depending on context.
83
In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Correct
(d) All the four
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Correct
(d) All the four
Explanation:
Cathode materials: Cobalt, Nickel, and Lithium. Graphite is used in the anode, not cathode.
Source: Department of Heavy Industries, NITI Aayog EV Policy Reports
84
Consider the following:
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three Correct
(d) None
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three Correct
(d) None
Explanation:
Cigarette filters contain cellulose acetate (a plastic). Eyeglass lenses are made of polycarbonate/plastic. Tyres are made with synthetic rubber, which is a plastic polymer.
Source: UNEP Plastic Pollution Reports
85
Consider the following substances:
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Correct
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Ethanol: via gasification → syngas → bioethanol. Urea: synthesized from ammonia + CO₂ (coal gasification source). Nitroglycerine: Not produced via coal gasification.
86
What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
(a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
(b) These are explosives in military weapons Correct
(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion
(a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
(b) These are explosives in military weapons Correct
(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Explanation:
All are high-energy explosives, used in defence applications for their thermobaric and detonation capabilities.
Source: DRDO publications, Defence Science Journal
87
Consider the following statements:
I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one Correct
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
I is correct – Majorana chip is associated with quantum computing. II is incorrect – It is developed by Microsoft and partners, not AWS. III is correct, but since question asks “only one is correct,” UPSC likely assumes only I is valid in their framing.
88
With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III Correct
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III Correct
Explanation:
Monoclonal antibodies:
• Engineered proteins (I)
• Bind to specific antigens (II)
• Used in Ebola, Nipah, and COVID-19 treatments (III)
• Engineered proteins (I
)• Bind to specific antigens (II
)• Used in Ebola, Nipah, and COVID-19 treatments (III
)
89
Consider the following statements:
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) None Correct
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) None Correct
Explanation:
All three statements are factually incorrect: Viruses are found in oceans (marine virome). Bacteriophages infect bacteria. Viruses alter host cell transcription significantly.
Source: WHO, Nature Reviews Microbiology
90
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I Correct
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I Correct
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Explanation:
II is correct and explains I. III is partially correct, but UPSC treats it as not directly explanatory here.
Source: CPCB & Environmental Science Texts
Questions 91–100: Science, Environment, Miscellaneous
91
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I Correct
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I Correct
Explanation:
CO₂ is emitted from limestone (CaCO₃) during clinker production and from fuel combustion in kilns. Silica-rich clay + limestone is the raw mix. Clinker formation releases CO₂ → explains I.
Source: UNEP Cement Industry Report, IPCC Sectoral Emissions
92
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: At COP28, India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
Statement II: The Declaration is binding and mandates decarbonization of the health sector.
Statement III: Decarbonization could compromise health sector resilience.
Which one is correct?
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I Correct
Statement I: At COP28, India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
Statement II: The Declaration is binding and mandates decarbonization of the health sector.
Statement III: Decarbonization could compromise health sector resilience.
Which one is correct?
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I Correct
Explanation:
II is incorrect – the declaration is non-binding. III is also speculative, but UPSC accepts III as a valid reason India refrained. Thus, Statement III explains I.
Source: COP28 Official Documents, WHO Health-Climate Guidelines
93
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest a shift in Earth’s rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and mass ejections bombard Earth’s upper atmosphere.
Statement III: Melting polar ice redistributes mass toward the equator.
Correct option:
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I Correct
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest a shift in Earth’s rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and mass ejections bombard Earth’s upper atmosphere.
Statement III: Melting polar ice redistributes mass toward the equator.
Correct option:
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I Correct
Explanation:
Statement III is correct: Polar ice melt affects Earth’s mass distribution, influencing axis shift. Solar flares affect communication, not Earth's rotation.
Source: NASA Earth Observatory, Nature Geoscience
94
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is frequently discussed.
Statement II: It sets out carbon market mechanisms.
Statement III: It also promotes non-market inter-country cooperation.
Which is correct?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I Correct
Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is frequently discussed.
Statement II: It sets out carbon market mechanisms.
Statement III: It also promotes non-market inter-country cooperation.
Which is correct?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I Correct
Explanation:
Article 6 covers:
• 6.2 – cooperative approaches (markets)
• 6.4 – sustainable development mechanism
• 6.8 – non-market approaches
These are major agenda items in climate negotiations.
• 6.2 – cooperative approaches (markets)
• 6.4 – sustainable development mechanism
• 6.8 – non-market approaches
These are major agenda items in climate negotiations.
Source: UNFCCC Paris Agreement Text, COP26–28 Summaries
95
Which organization launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?
(a) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) Correct
(a) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) Correct
Explanation:
The IBRD (World Bank) launched this to promote nature-based finance models in Asia-Pacific. Supports SDG and biodiversity funding.
Source: World Bank Climate Investment Reports
96
With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, which of the following is/are correct?
I. Can be used for carbon sequestration
II. Can aid plastic production and food processing
III. Can help create synthetic aviation fuel with hydrogen
(c) I, II and III Correct
I. Can be used for carbon sequestration
II. Can aid plastic production and food processing
III. Can help create synthetic aviation fuel with hydrogen
(c) I, II and III Correct
Explanation:
I: Primary use – carbon capture.
II: Captured CO₂ → used in food carbonation, plastics.
III: CO₂ + H₂ → synthetic fuels (Power-to-Liquid).
II: Captured CO₂ → used in food carbonation, plastics.
III: CO₂ + H₂ → synthetic fuels (Power-to-Liquid).
Source: IEA, IPCC AR6 Report
97
Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula):
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean
II. Habitat limited to some forests in India
III. It is an arboreal species
Which is correct?
(d) II and III Correct
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean
II. Habitat limited to some forests in India
III. It is an arboreal species
Which is correct?
(d) II and III Correct
Explanation:
It’s a spider (arachnid), not crustacean. Endemic to Andhra Pradesh. Lives on trees → arboreal.
Source: IUCN Red List, Zoological Survey of India
98
Consider the following statements:
I. India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are < 0.5 t CO₂ / capita
II. India ranks second in Asia-Pacific in CO₂ emissions
III. Electricity & heat producers are top emitters
Which is correct?
(c) II and III only Correct
I. India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are < 0.5 t CO₂ / capita
II. India ranks second in Asia-Pacific in CO₂ emissions
III. Electricity & heat producers are top emitters
Which is correct?
(c) II and III only Correct
Explanation:
I is false: India's per capita CO₂ ≈ 1.9 t/person. II & III are true.
Source: IEA 2023, India Energy Outlook
99
Consider the following pairs:
Plant – Description – Correct?
I. Cassava – Woody shrub
II. Ginger – Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach – Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint – Annual shrub (It’s a herb, not shrub)
V. Papaya – Woody shrub (It’s a herbaceous tree-like plant)
How many are correct?
(a) Only two Correct
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Plant – Description – Correct?
I. Cassava – Woody shrub
II. Ginger – Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach – Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint – Annual shrub
(It’s a herb, not shrub)V. Papaya – Woody shrub
(It’s a herbaceous tree-like plant)How many are correct?
(a) Only two Correct
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Explanation:
Only I, II are unambiguously correct.
Source: ICAR, NIOS Horticulture Notes
100
With reference to planet Earth, consider the following statements:
I. Rainforests produce more oxygen than oceans
II. Marine phytoplankton & photosynthetic bacteria produce ~50% of world oxygen
III. Surface water contains several times more oxygen than air
Which is correct?
(b) II only Correct
I. Rainforests produce more oxygen than oceans
II. Marine phytoplankton & photosynthetic bacteria produce ~50% of world oxygen
III. Surface water contains several times more oxygen than air
Which is correct?
(b) II only Correct
Explanation:
Oceans → major oxygen source. Rainforests are net neutral (they consume much during decay). Water holds less oxygen than air (gas solubility is lower).
Source: NOAA, NASA Earth Science
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Last updated: May 2025 | Compiled by Topper IAS