Topper IAS Discussion - Recent questions in UPSC Prelims Challenge

science mcq part `1

Mon, 04 Nov 2024 12:21:19 +0000

Q1. Consider the following statements:

An object with a larger mass requires a greater force to achieve the same acceleration as a lighter object, according to Newton’s Second Law.
When a person jumps off a boat, the boat moves in the opposite direction due to the Conservation of Momentum.
A moving truck has higher momentum than a bicycle moving at the same speed because it has a greater velocity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as per Newton's Second Law (F = ma). Statement 2 is correct, as the boat moves backward due to the Conservation of Momentum. Statement 3 is incorrect because the truck has higher momentum due to its greater mass, not velocity.

Q2. Consider the following statements:

Inertia is the property of a body that causes it to resist any change in its state of motion or rest.
The greater the mass of an object, the greater its inertia.
Frictional force is a force that accelerates the motion of an object in contact with a surface.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as inertia indeed resists changes in motion. Statement 2 is correct since objects with greater mass have greater inertia. Statement 3 is incorrect because frictional force opposes the motion, not accelerates it.

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Newton’s Third Law of Motion:

When you push against a wall, the wall pushes back with an equal force in the opposite direction.
A rocket moves upward by expelling gases downward; this is an example of Newton’s Third Law.
The force exerted by a truck on the ground when it is accelerating forward has no effect on the ground.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 both illustrate Newton's Third Law. Statement 3 is incorrect, as the truck does exert an equal and opposite reaction force on the ground as it accelerates forward.

Q4. Which of the following statements correctly describe the relationship between force and momentum?

A change in momentum is directly proportional to the applied force.
When no external force acts on a system, its total momentum remains constant.
The momentum of an object is independent of its mass.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as force causes a change in momentum over time (F = dp/dt). Statement 2 is correct due to the Conservation of Momentum. Statement 3 is incorrect, as momentum is the product of mass and velocity (p = mv), making it dependent on mass.

Q5. Match the following concepts with their examples:

Concept	Example
A. Inertia	1. A person pushes a car to make it accelerate
B. Momentum	2. A heavy truck resists changes in its state of rest
C. Newton’s 3rd Law	3. A gun recoils when fired

Select the correct answer from the options below:

(a) A-2, B-1, C-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1
(d) A-3, B-2, C-1

Answer: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3
Explanation: Inertia (A-2) is demonstrated by the truck’s resistance to change. Momentum (B-1) refers to the force required to accelerate the car. Newton’s Third Law (C-3) is shown by the recoil of a gun.

MCQ FOR UPSC AND KPSC PRELIMS 6

Fri, 13 Sep 2024 06:48:09 +0000

Consider the following statements about the Gandaki River:

The Gandaki River is also known as the Narayani and is a left-bank tributary of the Ganges in India.
It is formed by the union of the Kali and Trisuli rivers in the Great Himalaya Range.
The river has its entire catchment area located within India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a) only one
b) only two
c) all three
d) none

Answer: b) only two
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because only 7,620 sq km of the Gandaki River's total catchment area is located in India, while the rest is in Nepal.

Consider the following statements regarding the Gandaki River:

The Gandaki River flows along the Uttar Pradesh-Bihar state border and enters the Ganges near Patna.
The river is bounded on the north by the Himalayas and on the west by the Ghagra Basin.
Major tributaries of the Gandaki River include the Seti, Marsyandi, and Burhi Gandak.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because Burhi Gandak is not a tributary of the Gandaki River; rather, Seti, Marsyandi, Budhi Gandaki, and others are its major tributaries.

MCQ FOR UPSC AND KPSC PRELIMS 5

Fri, 13 Sep 2024 06:38:43 +0000

Consider the following statements about Aphelion:

Aphelion refers to the point when Earth is farthest from the Sun, usually occurring around 3rd to 6th July each year.
The distance between Earth and the Sun during aphelion is approximately 152.5 million kilometres.
Perihelion is when Earth is closest to the Sun, occurring around July 5 annually.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a) only one
b) only two
c) all three
d) none

Answer: b) only two
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because perihelion occurs around January 3, not July 5.

Consider the following statements regarding Earth's orbit:

The Earth's orbit is elliptical, causing its distance from the Sun to vary throughout the year.
During perihelion, the Earth is about 147.5 million kilometres from the Sun.
The Earth’s aphelion and perihelion dates remain fixed annually.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the perihelion and aphelion dates are not fixed; they vary slightly due to changes in Earth's orbital eccentricity.

MCQ FOR UPSC AND KPSC PRELIMS 4

Fri, 13 Sep 2024 06:23:50 +0000

Consider the following statements about the Upper Karnali Hydro-Electric Power Project:

The Upper Karnali Hydro-Electric Power Project is a 900 MW run-of-the-river hydropower project located in Nepal.
The project will supply power to Nepal, India, and Bangladesh for a period of 25 years.
The Government of Nepal has a 50% equity stake in the project under the MoU with GMR Group.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a) only one
b) only two
c) all three
d) none

Answer: b) only two
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the Government of Nepal received 27% free equity in the project, not 50%.

Consider the following statements about the Upper Karnali Hydro-Electric Power Project:

The project is being developed by GMR Upper Karnali Hydro Power Limited on a build-own-operate-transfer (BOOT) basis.
The project is expected to generate 3,466 million units of electricity and offset about two million tons of greenhouse gas emissions annually.
It includes features like a concrete gravity dam, fish pass, and silt flushing tunnels.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: All the statements are correct regarding the development and features of the Upper Karnali Hydro-Electric Power Project.

MCQ FOR UPSC AND KPSC PRELIMS 3

Fri, 13 Sep 2024 06:00:35 +0000

Consider the following statements about the Bailey Bridge:

The Bailey Bridge is a type of modular bridge, assembled quickly with pre-built parts and minimal construction work.
It was invented by an American civil engineer during World War II.
Bailey bridges are ideal for disaster relief and military use because they do not require heavy installation equipment and can be transported in small trucks.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a) only one
b) only two
c) all three
d) none

Answer: b) only two
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bailey Bridge was invented by Donald Coleman Bailey, an English civil engineer, not an American.

Consider the following statements about the construction of Bailey Bridges:

Bailey bridges use light steel panels linked through pins to create guardrails.
The beams that form the deck of the bridge are placed directly on the ground.
The parts of a Bailey bridge are designed to lock together for enhanced stability and can be extended.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the beams form the deck of the bridge on top of the guardrails, not directly on the ground.

Consider the following statements about the Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano:

Ol Doinyo Lengai is located in northern Tanzania and is known as the "Mountain of God" by the local Maasai people.
It is the only volcano on Earth that actively erupts carbonatite magma, which is highly rich in silica.
The volcano is part of the East African Rift System and has an elevation of 9,442 feet.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a) only one
b) only two
c) all three
d) none

Answer: b) only two
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because Ol Doinyo Lengai's carbonatite magma is poor in silica, not rich in it.

Consider the following statements about Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano:

Ol Doinyo Lengai has more than one active center, with most recent eruptions occurring from its northern crater.
The lavas of Ol Doinyo Lengai are extremely alkaline, containing high amounts of sodium and potassium, making them resemble washing soda.
The volcano's magma is unique because it contains high levels of silica and low levels of alkali elements like sodium and calcium.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the magma is poor in silica and rich in alkali elements like sodium and calcium.

Consider the following statements about the Standardised Precipitation Index (SPI):

The SPI is used to estimate both wet and dry conditions based on long-term precipitation data for a specific location.
A positive SPI value indicates drought conditions, while a negative value indicates wet conditions.
The SPI can be calculated for timescales ranging from 1 month to 72 months.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a) only one
b) only two
c) all three
d) none

Answer: b) only two
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because a positive SPI value indicates wet conditions, and a negative SPI value indicates drought.

Consider the following statements about the Standardised Precipitation Index (SPI):

The SPI is based on long-term precipitation data, preferably over a period longer than 30 years.
The SPI becomes more negative as drought conditions worsen and more positive as wet conditions intensify.
The SPI only calculates short-term timescales, such as 1 to 12 months.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the SPI can calculate for a range of timescales, including both short-term and long-term periods, from 1 month to 72 months.

MCQ FOR UPSC AND KPSC PRELIMS 2

Fri, 13 Sep 2024 05:33:58 +0000

Statement-Based MCQs on Juanga Tribe

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Juanga Tribe:

The Juanga tribe is classified as one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in Odisha.
Juangas are traditionally known for wearing leaf skirts, but they have now shifted to wearing clothing bought from local markets.
The tribe practices only hunting and does not engage in any form of agriculture.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the Juanga tribe originally practiced shifting cultivation and is now moving towards settled agriculture.

2. Which of the following statements is true about the traditional leadership of the Juanga Tribe?

a) The post of Pradhan is hereditary and passes from father to son.
b) The Pradhan, the tribe's headman, is chosen for life and cannot be replaced.
c) The Pradhan’s role is not hereditary, and the selection is based on a senior person with maneuvering capacity.
d) The Pradhan does not have any significant decision-making powers in the tribe.

Answer: c) The Pradhan’s role is not hereditary, and the selection is based on a senior person with maneuvering capacity.
Explanation: The post of Pradhan is not hereditary, and the Pradhan is selected based on their capacity to lead and make decisions.

3. Consider the following statements:

The Juanga tribe has retained a traditional political council where the Pradhan is the formal headman.
The Juanga tribe is mainly concentrated in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
The Juangas are skilled in basket weaving, decorative comb-making, and domesticating animals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the Juanga tribe is primarily concentrated in Odisha, particularly in the Keonjhar district.

4. Which of the following best describes the Juanga tribe's traditional occupation?

a) They are primarily known for being full-time hunters.
b) The tribe practiced shifting cultivation but is transitioning to settled agriculture.
c) The Juangas have always been involved in industrial work in Odisha.
d) They are traditionally involved in fishing and coastal activities.

Answer: b) The tribe practiced shifting cultivation but is transitioning to settled agriculture.
Explanation: The Juanga tribe originally practiced shifting cultivation and is now moving towards settled agriculture as their primary occupation.

5. Consider the following statements about the Juanga Tribe:

The Juanga tribe is one of 13 PVTGs out of the 62 tribes found in Odisha.
As per Census 2011, the population of the Juanga tribe in Odisha is approximately 50,000.
The Juanga tribe is skilled in making decorative combs and tobacco cases to supplement their income.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the Juanga tribe’s population in Odisha, according to the 2011 Census, is 47,095.

Statement-Based MCQs on Pyrocumulonimbus Clouds

1. Consider the following statements about Pyrocumulonimbus clouds:

Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are formed during intense wildfires and volcanic eruptions due to the extreme heat generated.
These clouds are capable of generating their own thunderstorms and can cause lightning.
Pyrocumulonimbus clouds generally produce a significant amount of rainfall, helping to extinguish the wildfire.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because pyrocumulonimbus clouds do not produce much rain and often contribute to the spread of wildfires by generating lightning and strong winds.

2. What triggers the formation of Pyrocumulonimbus clouds?

a) The presence of large bodies of water and high humidity
b) The intense heat generated from wildfires or volcanic eruptions
c) Strong winds and cyclones near forest areas
d) Heavy rainfall over dry areas with vegetation

Answer: b) The intense heat generated from wildfires or volcanic eruptions
Explanation: Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are formed due to the extreme heat from wildfires or volcanic eruptions, which causes hot air to rise and condense into clouds.

3. Consider the following statements about Pyrocumulonimbus clouds:

Pyrocumulonimbus clouds can reach heights of 50,000 feet.
These clouds produce significant amounts of rainfall, often extinguishing the fires that create them.
Lightning generated by these clouds can spark new wildfires far away from the main blaze.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because pyrocumulonimbus clouds produce little to no rainfall, but they can generate lightning that may ignite new fires.

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Pyrocumulonimbus clouds?

a) They are capable of creating their own thunderstorms.
b) They are formed due to the rising hot air during a wildfire.
c) They reduce the risk of further wildfires by producing heavy rain.
d) They can generate strong winds, making wildfire spread more unpredictable.

Answer: c) They reduce the risk of further wildfires by producing heavy rain.
Explanation: Pyrocumulonimbus clouds do not produce much rain and can actually increase the risk of further wildfires by generating lightning and strong winds.

5. Consider the following statements about the impact of climate change on Pyrocumulonimbus clouds:

Climate change has contributed to an increase in the frequency of wildfires, which in turn may increase the occurrence of pyrocumulonimbus clouds.
Studies show that rising global temperatures are linked to more intense and frequent wildfires.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Both statements are correct, as climate change and rising global temperatures are contributing to the increased frequency and intensity of wildfires, leading to more pyrocumulonimbus cloud formations.

MCQ FOR UPSC AND KPSC PRELIMS 1

Fri, 13 Sep 2024 04:46:41 +0000

Statement-Based MCQs on Lunisolar Calendar: New Study

1. Consider the following statements about the newly discovered lunisolar calendar:

The lunisolar calendar found at Gobekli Tepe in southern Turkey is believed to track the movements of the moon and the sun.
The V-shaped markings on a stone pillar at the site are thought to document a significant comet strike around 10,850 B.C.
The discovery suggests that ancient people lacked the knowledge or tools to record astronomical events.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the discovery suggests that ancient people were sophisticated enough to record astronomical events.

2. The lunisolar calendar discovered at Gobekli Tepe is believed to date back to which period?

a) 5,000 B.C.
b) 2,500 B.C.
c) 10,850 B.C.
d) 3,000 B.C.

Answer: c) 10,850 B.C.
Explanation: The V-shaped markings on the stone pillar are thought to document a significant comet strike around 10,850 B.C..

3. Which of the following is a significant implication of the discovery of the lunisolar calendar at Gobekli Tepe?

a) Ancient people had no knowledge of astronomy.
b) The discovery shows that ancient people had developed methods to track celestial events.
c) The calendar was used solely for agricultural purposes.
d) The calendar was found in northern Europe.

Answer: b) The discovery shows that ancient people had developed methods to track celestial events.
Explanation: The carvings suggest that ancient people were sophisticated enough to record and track astronomical events.

4. Which of the following events is believed to be documented by the V-shaped markings on the stone pillar at Gobekli Tepe?

a) The eruption of a volcano
b) A significant comet strike
c) The invention of writing
d) A solar eclipse

Answer: b) A significant comet strike
Explanation: The V-shaped markings are thought to document a comet strike that occurred around 10,850 B.C., which had catastrophic effects on Earth.

5. What major event is believed to have been triggered by the comet strike documented by the lunisolar calendar at Gobekli Tepe?

a) The beginning of the Neolithic Revolution
b) The end of the Ice Age
c) A 1,200-year-long ice age
d) The extinction of the dinosaurs

Answer: c) A 1,200-year-long ice age
Explanation: The comet strike is believed to have triggered a 1,200-year-long ice age.

Statement-Based MCQs on Liquid Water on Mars

1. Consider the following statements about the discovery of liquid water on Mars:

The discovery of liquid water on Mars was made using data from NASA’s InSight Lander, which recorded seismic activity on the Martian surface.
The presence of liquid water was identified at depths of 10 to 20 kilometres within the Martian crust.
This is the first evidence of any form of water on Mars, as water ice was never previously detected on the planet.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because water ice was previously known to exist on Mars, particularly at the planet’s poles.

2. Which of the following technologies was crucial in detecting the presence of liquid water on Mars?

a) Mars Rovers
b) A spectrometer on Mars orbiters
c) Seismometer data from NASA’s InSight Lander
d) High-resolution cameras aboard satellites

Answer: c) Seismometer data from NASA’s InSight Lander
Explanation: The seismometer aboard NASA’s InSight Lander was key in recording seismic waves, which helped infer the presence of liquid water beneath Mars' surface.

3. Consider the following statements about the study of liquid water on Mars:

The study was conducted by researchers from the University of California.
The findings suggest that liquid water may have seeped into the Martian crust billions of years ago when Mars had a warmer climate.
The amount of water trapped in Mars' rock fractures is estimated to be enough to fill an ocean 1-2 kilometres deep across the entire planet.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: All statements are correct regarding the study and its findings about liquid water on Mars.

4. What is the significance of the recent discovery of liquid water on Mars?

a) It confirms that Mars currently has an atmosphere similar to Earth’s.
b) It enhances the potential for finding habitable environments and understanding Mars' climatic history.
c) It provides the first evidence of water ice on the Martian poles.
d) It disproves previous theories about water on Mars.

Answer: b) It enhances the potential for finding habitable environments and understanding Mars' climatic history.
Explanation: The discovery of liquid water boosts the potential for habitable environments and offers insights into Mars' climatic history and surface processes.

5. What method did scientists use to infer the presence of liquid water beneath the surface of Mars?

a) By analyzing surface photos from Mars Rovers
b) By studying the reflection of sunlight on the surface
c) By examining the speed of seismic waves and applying a geophysical model
d) By using satellite radar to detect water reservoirs

Answer: c) By examining the speed of seismic waves and applying a geophysical model
Explanation: The presence of liquid water was inferred by analyzing the speed of seismic waves and using a geophysical model to identify the type of material the waves traveled through.

MCQ FOR PRELIMS

Fri, 13 Sep 2024 04:31:07 +0000

Statement-Based MCQs on Saora Tribe

1. Consider the following statements about the Saora tribe:

The Saora tribe is predominantly found in the state of Odisha, with smaller populations in Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Assam.
The Saoras have their own script called Sorang Sompeng for their native language, Sora, which belongs to the Munda language family.
The Saora tribe practices only wet cultivation and is not involved in any other form of agriculture.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the Saora tribe practices both wet cultivation and shifting/terraced cultivation depending on their economic class (plains Saoras and hill Saoras).

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Saora tribe of Odisha?

The Saoras are mentioned in the ancient Indian epics, the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
The Saoras follow a religion that includes the worship of various gods and spirits.
Tantangbo refers to the Saora tribe’s unique art practices that are still widely followed today.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Tantangbo refers to the Saora tribe’s dying tattooing tradition, not their art practices.

3. Consider the following statements:

The Saora tribe shows physical characteristics similar to the Proto Australoid race, which is dominant among aborigines in Central and Southern India.
The Lanjia Saora (Hill Saoras) primarily practice terraced cultivation on hill slopes.
Saora villages follow a structured settlement pattern with houses built in rows and megaliths located at the village center.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because Saora villages do not conform to any particular settlement pattern; their houses are scattered, and megaliths are erected to commemorate dead kin, located close by.

4. Consider the following statements:

Odisha has provided habitat rights over ancestral lands to the highest number of particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs), including the Saora tribe.
The Saora tribe practices shifting cultivation and terraced farming on hill slopes and is not involved in any other form of livelihood.
The native language of the Saoras is Sora, which belongs to the Dravidian language family.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the Saora tribe is also involved in wet cultivation and wage earning. Statement 3 is incorrect because Sora is a Munda language, not a Dravidian language.

5. Which of the following is true about the Saora tribe’s economic division?

a) The Sudha Saoras are known for shifting cultivation on hill slopes.
b) The Lanjia Saoras depend primarily on wet cultivation.
c) The Sudha Saoras depend on wet cultivation or wage earning.
d) The Lanjia Saoras are primarily wage earners and firewood sellers.

Answer: c) The Sudha Saoras depend on wet cultivation or wage earning.
Explanation: The Sudha Saoras (plains Saoras) practice wet cultivation and wage earning, while the Lanjia Saoras (hill Saoras) practice shifting and terraced cultivation.

Statement-Based MCQs on Musi River: In News

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Musi River:

The Musi River is a tributary of the Krishna River and flows through the state of Telangana.
The Musi River originates in the Anantagiri Hills near Vicarabad, which is about 90 kilometers west of Hyderabad.
The Musi River merges with the Godavari River near Wazirabad in Nalgonda district.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the Musi River merges with the Krishna River, not the Godavari River, near Wazirabad in Nalgonda district.

2. Which of the following statements is correct about the Musi River?

a) It flows through the state of Andhra Pradesh.
b) Hyderabad is situated on the banks of the Musi River.
c) The Musi River originates in the Eastern Ghats.
d) The Musi River does not have any major dams constructed over it.

Answer: b) Hyderabad is situated on the banks of the Musi River.
Explanation: Hyderabad stands on the banks of the Musi River, dividing the city between the old and the new. The river flows through Telangana, not Andhra Pradesh, and there are two major dams constructed over it: Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar.

3. Consider the following statements:

The Musi River was historically known as the Muchukunda River.
The river covers a total distance of around 150 kilometers before joining the Krishna River.
The Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar dams are constructed over the Musi River.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the Musi River covers a distance of about 240 kilometers, not 150 kilometers, before joining the Krishna River.

4. Consider the following statements about the Musi River:

The Musi River begins in the Anantagiri Hills in Telangana.
The river consists of two tributaries, Esi and Musa, which converge into the Musi River.
The Musi River divides Hyderabad into the northern and southern parts of the city.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the Musi River divides Hyderabad into old and new parts, not specifically into northern and southern parts.

5. Which of the following is correct about the dams constructed over the Musi River?

a) Nagarjuna Sagar and Srisailam dams
b) Bhakra and Nangal dams
c) Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar dams
d) Hirakud and Tehri dams

Answer: c) Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar dams
Explanation: The Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar dams are constructed over the Musi River, serving as sources of water supply to Hyderabad.

Statement-Based MCQs on Nebula: Study

Thu, 12 Sep 2024 07:46:00 +0000

Statement-Based MCQs on Nebula: Study

1. Consider the following statements about Nebulae:

Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas in space, made primarily of hydrogen and helium.
Some nebulae are formed from the explosion of dying stars like supernovae.
The Red Spider Nebula is an example of a supernova remnant.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Red Spider Nebula is a planetary nebula, not a supernova remnant, making statement 3 incorrect.

2. Consider the following statements:

Nebulae can be regions where new stars are formed, hence referred to as "star nurseries."
The Helix Nebula is the closest known nebula to Earth, approximately 700 light-years away.
The gravity in a nebula causes the clumps of dust and gas to cool down and form stars.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because gravity causes the clumps of gas and dust to heat up, not cool down, leading to star formation.

3. Consider the following statements about types of nebulae:

Planetary nebulae are formed when a dying star sheds its outer layers.
Dark nebulae emit light due to the ionization of their gas components.
Emission nebulae glow because the gas in them is ionized by nearby young stars.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2, and 3
d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because dark nebulae do not emit light; instead, they block light from other sources, making them appear dark.

4. Consider the following statements:

Nebulae exist in interstellar space, which is the space between stars.
The gravity in a nebula pulls dust and gas together, eventually forming new stars.
The Red Spider Nebula, located in the constellation of Sagittarius, is 700 light-years away from Earth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because the Red Spider Nebula is located 3,000 light-years away from Earth.

5. Consider the following statements:

Supernova remnants are a type of nebula formed from the explosion of a dying massive star.
Planetary nebulae are formed from low-mass stars during the later stages of their evolution.
Nebulae are mostly composed of oxygen and carbon.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because nebulae are primarily composed of hydrogen and helium, not oxygen and carbon.

With reference to ragging in educational institutions, consider the following statements:

Mon, 20 Nov 2023 12:36:08 +0000

The R.K. Raghavan Committee was appointed by the Supreme Court in 2007 to address the issue of ragging.

The University Grants Commission (UGC) Regulations on Curbing the Menace of Ragging were implemented in 1995.

State laws in India focus equally on prevention and prohibition of ragging.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(c) All three statements

(d) None of the statements

Acknowledge India’s economic successes too (GS-3)

Mon, 20 Nov 2023 12:33:57 +0000

Mains Question: Discuss the key strategies adopted by the Indian government post-COVID-19 pandemic that have contributed to the rapid economic recovery and inclusive growth, and analyze how these strategies can sustain long-term economic development.

Mon, 20 Nov 2023 12:33:07 +0000

With reference to India's Economic Growth Post-COVID-19, consider the following statements:

Mon, 20 Nov 2023 12:31:35 +0000

India's economy grew at 7.2% in FY2023, the fastest among major economies.

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was introduced in 2018.

India's multidimensional poverty has increased from 2015-16 to 2019-21.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) None of the statements

Semiconductors fabrication in India

Mon, 20 Nov 2023 12:30:39 +0000

Mains Question: Analyze the challenges faced by India in establishing a robust semiconductor manufacturing sector and discuss the strategic importance of self-reliance in this technology for India's future.

Mon, 20 Nov 2023 12:28:52 +0000

With reference to the semiconductor fabrication in India, consider the following statements:

Mon, 20 Nov 2023 12:27:48 +0000

The PLI scheme for semiconductors and displays in India has a budget outlay of over ₹50,000 crore.

Semiconductor manufacturing in India primarily relies on domestic raw materials.

One of the goals of semiconductor PLI is to reduce dependency on foreign chips and assert India’s technological self-reliance.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) None of the statements

With reference to NATO's support to Ukraine, consider the following statements:

Fri, 14 Jul 2023 09:59:17 +0000

NATO waived its Membership Action Plan for Ukraine.

Finland became the 31st member of NATO in April.

NATO offered a timetable for Ukraine's induction into the organization.

The NATO should explore pathways to a ceasefire in Ukraine.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the recent GST Council meeting, consider the following statements:

Fri, 14 Jul 2023 09:58:30 +0000

The first set of Appellate Tribunals is expected to become operational within four to six months.

The taxation of online gaming industry was finalized at a 28% GST levy on the face value of all bets.

The Council granted tax exemptions and reduced rates for food and beverages in cinema halls, unfried snack pellets, fish soluble paste, and imitation zari yarn.

The Council appointed a successor to the ministerial group responsible for rate restructuring.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the first Geological Survey of India (GSI) expedition to the Siachen glacier, consider the following statements:

Fri, 14 Jul 2023 09:57:50 +0000

The survey took place in June 1958.

V. K. Raina, a renowned Indian geologist, led the expedition.

The Siachen glacier was the only glacier surveyed during the expedition.

Pakistan expressed concerns and protests about India's presence on the glacier during the survey.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to India's Chandrayaan-3 mission, consider the following statements:

Fri, 14 Jul 2023 09:57:14 +0000

Chandrayaan-3 aims to achieve a soft landing on the lunar surface.

The mission consists of a propulsion module, a lander module, and a rover.

Chandrayaan-3 is India's fourth moon mission.

The launch of Chandrayaan-3 will take place at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the development of treatment for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD), consider the following statements:

Fri, 14 Jul 2023 09:56:35 +0000

DMD is a genetic disease that affects both male and female children.

The treatment for DMD involves the use of a food additive called beta-glucan.

The beta-glucan used in the treatment is produced by the N-163 strain of the yeast Aureobasidium pullulans.

The clinical study conducted on children with DMD showed significant improvement in muscle strength.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the interlinkage between India's diabetes epidemic and the TB epidemic, consider the following statements:

Fri, 14 Jul 2023 09:55:53 +0000

DM (Diabetes Mellitus) increases the risk of developing respiratory infections.

DM delays the healing process of TB by prolonging sputum smear and culture conversion.

TB patients with DM have lower lung functioning after completing treatment compared to TB patients without DM.

DM has no impact on TB treatment outcomes.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the Supreme Court's verdict on service extensions to heads of investigative agencies, consider the following statements:

Thu, 13 Jul 2023 08:19:44 +0000

The Court quashed all extensions given to the Director of Enforcement, S.K. Mishra.

The amendments made in 2021 allow for annual extensions to the heads of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and Enforcement Directorate (ED) until they complete five years in office.

The Court found that the amendments violate fundamental rights.

The Court's decision promotes the institutional independence of investigative agencies.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the South China Sea issue, consider the following statements:

Thu, 13 Jul 2023 08:19:00 +0000

India and the Philippines recently held a joint commission meeting to discuss bilateral cooperation.

India has always supported China's claims in the South China Sea.

The 2016 Arbitral Award ruled in favor of China's historical rights in the South China Sea.

ASEAN leaders play a significant role in finding a political solution to the South China Sea issue.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the return of looted cultural artefacts, consider the following statements:

Thu, 13 Jul 2023 08:18:13 +0000

The Netherlands recently announced the return of 484 valuable artefacts looted from Indonesia and Sri Lanka during the colonial period.

The British have willingly returned all the Benin Bronzes looted by British forces in 1897 to Nigeria.

The British government has shown willingness to return the Elgin Marbles and the Rosetta Stone to their countries of origin.

The Kohinoor diamond is currently displayed in the British Museum and serves as a symbol of colonial plunder.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the Consumer Price Index (CPI) basket and its limitations, consider the following statements:

Thu, 13 Jul 2023 08:17:30 +0000

The CPI basket includes items such as torches, radios, tape recorders, CDs, DVDs, and trunks, which are no longer relevant in modern consumption patterns.

The weight allocation in the CPI basket is fixed and does not change over time.

The high weight assigned to cereals in the current CPI is considered excessive and fails to account for dietary shifts and government welfare programs.

The absence of up-to-date consumption expenditure data hampers the accurate reflection of changing consumption patterns in the CPI.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the National Research Foundation (NRF), consider the following statements:

Thu, 13 Jul 2023 08:16:47 +0000

The NRF was established based on the National Education Policy 2020.

The NRF aims to coordinate research efforts between researchers, government bodies, and industry.

The NRF will be funded entirely by the government's share of ₹50,000 crore for five years.

The NRF plans to provide research grants and support researchers in universities, excluding State universities.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the impact of welfare schemes on brain development and poverty alleviation, consider the following statements:

Thu, 13 Jul 2023 08:15:33 +0000

Welfare schemes have been found to positively influence brain development in children from low-income families.

The cortex, being the outer layer of the brain, has been shown to have higher volume in children from low-income families.

The hippocampus, a deep-seated convoluted structure associated with learning and memory, is larger in children from higher-income families.

Generous anti-poverty policies have no significant impact on reducing the risk of smaller hippocampal volume in children.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, 2023, consider the following statements:

Wed, 12 Jul 2023 07:35:48 +0000

The new amendments to the Forest Act incentivize private agro-forestry and tree plantation activities.

The amendments broaden the scope of protection provided by the 1996 Supreme Court judgment.

Forest land near India's borders can be appropriated for "strategic and security" purposes without central approval under the amendments.

The parliamentary committee reviewing the bill has expressed its opinion on the way forward.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the demographic transition and change in women's lives, consider the following statements:

Wed, 12 Jul 2023 07:35:02 +0000

The decline in mortality rates in India has led to a decrease in the need for large families.

The preference for sons in Indian society has resulted in sex-selective abortion and neglect of sick daughters.

As fertility rates declined, women in India had fewer opportunities for education and employment.

Accessible and affordable childcare is crucial for enhancing women's labor force participation.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the current state of Indian politics, consider the following statements:

Wed, 12 Jul 2023 07:34:21 +0000

44% of the sitting Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) in India have a criminal case against them.

The percentage of Members of Parliament (MPs) with criminal cases in the Lok Sabha has doubled from 22% in 2004 to 43% currently.

The cases registered against politicians are generally frivolous and politically motivated.

The Election Commission of India (ECI) has taken significant action to address the issue of criminal records among politicians.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to the legal row between farmers and PepsiCo over a unique potato variety, consider the following statements:

Wed, 12 Jul 2023 07:33:35 +0000

PepsiCo's appeal against the revocation of its registration for the 'FL 2027' potato variety was accepted by the Delhi High Court.

The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001 (PPV&FR Act) provides safeguards and protections to farmers and breeders.

'FL 2027' is a chipping potato variety developed by a former employee of Frito-Lay Agricultural Research.

The court rejected PepsiCo's appeal because they applied for registration as a "new variant" instead of an "extant variant" for the 'FL 2027' potato variety.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to Chandrayaan missions, consider the following statements:

Wed, 12 Jul 2023 07:32:02 +0000

Chandrayaan-1 was ISRO's first lunar mission launched in October 2008.

Chandrayaan-1 successfully landed a rover on the lunar surface.

Chandrayaan-2, launched in July 2019, experienced a software glitch that caused the lander to crash on the moon.

Chandrayaan-3 is planned to demonstrate end-to-end capability for safe landing and roving on the lunar surface.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:

Sun, 28 May 2023 11:05:20 +0000

The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.

Stupa was generally a repository of relics.

Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

Sun, 28 May 2023 11:04:21 +0000

(a) Andhra

(b) Gandhara

(d) Magadha

5.Which of the following statements accurately describes the term ‘preamble’ in relation to the Constitution?

Fri, 05 May 2023 08:35:36 +0000

It refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution.
It is the first article of the Constitution.
It contains the summary or essence of the Constitution.
It is a declaration of the fundamental rights of citizens.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

4.With reference to the Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

Fri, 05 May 2023 08:34:43 +0000

The President of India is listed in the Second Schedule.
The Chief Minister of a state is listed in the Second Schedule.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3.Which of the following is a feature of the parliamentary system of government in India?

Fri, 05 May 2023 08:33:46 +0000

Separation of powers between the legislative and executive organs.
Direct election of the head of state.
Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
Appointment of state governors by the president.

(a) Only statement 1 is correct.

(b) Only statement 2 is correct.

(d) Only statement 4 is correct.

2.With reference to the Constituent Assembly, consider the following statements:

Fri, 05 May 2023 08:32:35 +0000

The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was 393.
Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the eleven governors’ provinces and four from the four chief commissioners’ provinces.
Each province and princely state were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population.
The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of first-past-the-post.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

1.With reference to the Charter Act of 1833, consider the following statements:

Fri, 05 May 2023 08:31:42 +0000

The Act made the Governor-General of Bengal the first governor-general of India.
The Act deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their executive powers.
The Act introduced a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, but this provision was later revoked.
The laws made under this act were called as Regulations.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

With reference to soil erosion, consider the following statements:

Fri, 28 Apr 2023 07:30:19 +0000

Splash erosion occurs when raindrops hit bare soil.
Sheet erosion refers to the uniform movement of a thick layer of soil across an expanse of land devoid of vegetative cover.
Rill erosion evolves into gully erosion as duration or intensity of rain continues to increase and runoff volumes continue to accelerate.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 Only

(b) 2 and 3 Only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the following is an example of allelopathy?

Fri, 28 Apr 2023 07:29:28 +0000

(a) Growing crops on the border areas of the plot or field

(b) The ratio of the weight of organic C to the weight of total N in the soil

(d) Direct or indirect harmful effect of one plant over the other crop species through the exudation of toxic substances from the roots or the decomposition of crop residues

Which of the following is an example of hidden hunger?

Fri, 28 Apr 2023 07:28:43 +0000

(a) Plants do not exhibit visual symptoms of deficiency due to the short supply of particular nutrients but will result in yield losses.

(b) A growth movement in response to gravity.

(d) The condition where plants require intense light for normal development.

Which of the following is an efficient method of irrigation for close-growing crops?

Fri, 28 Apr 2023 07:28:05 +0000

(a) Mulching

(b) Check basin

(d) Contour farming

Which of the following is not an example of a growth regulator?

Fri, 28 Apr 2023 07:27:30 +0000

(a) Auxins

(b) Cytokinins

(d) Gibberellins

what is the status of marriage under Indian law?

Wed, 05 Apr 2023 14:26:00 +0000

Marriage is a sacrament conferred by religion.

Marriage is a status conferred by law.

Marriage requires procreation.

It does not mention the status of marriage under Indian law.

Question: What is the argument against legalizing queer marriages that the author argues is flawed?

Wed, 05 Apr 2023 14:24:31 +0000

It is not a matter of judicial interference, but one of interpreting the statutes.

Legalizing queer marriages will destroy the concept of family.

The laws pertaining to marriage necessitate procreation.

Conventional conceptualizations of family and marriage are facing evolutionary challenges.

Question: What is the position of the retired judges on legalizing same-sex marriage?

Wed, 05 Apr 2023 14:23:45 +0000

They support legalizing same-sex marriage.

They oppose legalizing same-sex marriage.

They are neutral on the issue of legalizing same-sex marriage.

The article does not mention the retired judges' position on legalizing same-sex marriage.

what is the argument against legalizing queer marriages?

Wed, 05 Apr 2023 14:22:58 +0000

It would destroy the concept of family, which is the fundamental building block of society.

It would lead to social instability and chaos.

It would be unconstitutional.

The article does not mention any arguments against legalizing queer marriages.

Question: With reference to the article, which statement is true about the Indian government's position on same-sex marriage?

Wed, 05 Apr 2023 14:19:32 +0000

The government supports same-sex marriage.

The government opposes same-sex marriage.

The government has not taken a position on same-sex marriage.

The article does not mention the government's position.