KPSC KAS PRELIMS 2024 PAPER 1 PART 3

Question

31. Consider the following statements with reference to Union Territories.

A. Part VII of the Constitution deals with Union Territories in India.
B. Administrator of the Union Territories is the agent of the President of India.
C. Andaman and Nicobar Islands come under the Madras High Court in Judicial Jurisdiction.
D. The Governor of Punjab acts as an administrator of Chandigarh Union Territory.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Only one statement is correct
2. Only two statements are correct
3. Only three statements are correct
4. All the statements are correct

Answer: (2) Only two statements are correct

Explanation:

• A. Incorrect. Union Territories are dealt with under Part VIII of the Constitution of India, not Part VII.
• B. Correct. The Administrator of a Union Territory acts as an agent of the President of India.
• C. Incorrect. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands fall under the jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court, not the Madras High Court.
• D. Correct. The Governor of Punjab also serves as the Administrator of the Union Territory of Chandigarh.

Statements B and D are correct.

32. As per Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, State includes the following:

A. The Government and Parliament of India.
B. The Government and Legislatures of States.
C. All local or other authorities within or outside the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
D. It does not include statutory authorities.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. A and B
2. C and D
3. A and D
4. B and C

Answer: (4) B and C

Explanation:

• A. Incorrect. While it is true that the Government and Parliament of India are included under "State" as per Article 12, this statement alone doesn't give the full picture of what "State" includes.
• B. Correct. The Government and Legislatures of States are indeed included under the definition of "State" as per Article 12.
• C. Correct. Article 12 also includes all local or other authorities within or outside the territory of India, as long as they are under the control of the Government of India.
• D. Incorrect. Statutory authorities can be included under "State" if they are under the control of the government.

Statements B and C are correct.

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33. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

A. Non-Resident Indian (NRI) is an Indian citizen who is ordinarily residing outside India and holds an Indian passport.
B. Person of Indian Origin (PIO) is a person who or whose any of the ancestors was an Indian National and who is presently holding another country’s nationality and holding a foreign passport.
C. Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) is a person registered as OCI cardholder under the citizenship Act, 1955. It will be headed by retired IAS officer Mohamed Sanaulla.
D. OCI and NRIs can visit India without a visa for life long.

Which of the statements is/are incorrect?

1. Only one statement is wrong
2. Only two statements are wrong
3. Only three statements are wrong
4. None of the statements are wrong

Answer: (2) Only two statements are wrong

Explanation:

• A. Correct. An NRI is indeed an Indian citizen residing outside India and holding an Indian passport.
• B. Correct. A Person of Indian Origin (PIO) is someone whose ancestors were Indian nationals, and who holds citizenship in another country.
• C. Incorrect. While the definition of OCI is correct, the statement about being headed by retired IAS officer Mohamed Sanaulla is incorrect.
• D. Incorrect. OCI cardholders can visit India without a visa, but NRIs (who hold Indian passports) do not need a visa to visit India. The statement is partially misleading.

Statements C and D are incorrect.

34. The Indian Government has agreed to incorporate the Indian ‘Yehzabo’ into the Indian constitution. What does ‘Yehzabo’ stand for?

1. Tribal language in VIII schedule
2. Tribal community in V schedule
3. Naga Constitution
4. Formation of separate autonomous region of Ladakh

Answer: (3) Naga Constitution

Explanation:

• The term "Yehzabo" refers to the traditional constitution or set of customary laws followed by the Naga tribes. The Indian Government's agreement to incorporate "Yehzabo" into the Indian Constitution refers to recognizing the customary practices of the Nagas.

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35. Consider the following statements:

A. National Foundation for Communal Harmony was set up in 1948 post the partition to instill communal harmony and fraternity amongst people.
B. It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Union Home Ministry.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above

Answer: (1) A only

Explanation:

• A. Incorrect. The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) was established in 1992, not in 1948, to promote communal harmony and national integration.
• B. Correct. It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Statement A is incorrect.

Answer 1

36. Which of the following are functions of the Election Commission of India?

A. Conducting elections to the Lok Sabha.
B. Conducting elections to the State Legislative Assemblies and local bodies.
C. Preparation of electoral rolls.
D. Delimitation of constituencies.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, and D
2. B, C, and D
3. A, B, C, and D
4. A and B only

Answer: (1) A, C, and D

Explanation:

• A. Correct. The Election Commission of India (ECI) conducts elections to the Lok Sabha.
• B. Incorrect. The Election Commission of India conducts elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies. However, local body elections are typically conducted by State Election Commissions.
• C. Correct. The ECI is responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls.
• D. Correct. The ECI is involved in the delimitation of constituencies.

Statements A, C, and D are correct.

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37. Which of the following statements about Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) are correct?

A. It has seven-member countries.
B. It comprises 21% of the world population.
C. It promotes cooperation in strategic, defense, and security fields.
D. It has its headquarters in Dhaka.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, and C
2. A, B, and D
3. A and C only
4. B, C, and D

Answer: (2) A, B, and D

Explanation:

• A. Correct. BIMSTEC has seven member countries: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.
• B. Correct. BIMSTEC indeed comprises about 21% of the world’s population.
• C. Incorrect. While BIMSTEC does promote economic and technical cooperation, it is not primarily focused on strategic, defense, and security fields.
• D. Correct. The headquarters of BIMSTEC is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.

Statements A, B, and D are correct.

38. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to examine and recommend changes regarding Centre-State relations.
B. Article 122 of the Indian Constitution deals with the impeachment of the President.
C. Power to make laws with respect to 'divorce and marriage' subjects lies exclusively with the Parliament of India.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. C only

Answer: (3) A and C only

Explanation:

• A. Correct. The Sarkaria Commission was indeed appointed to examine Centre-State relations and suggest recommendations.
• B. Incorrect. Article 122 of the Indian Constitution deals with the courts not questioning the validity of any proceedings in Parliament. The impeachment of the President is covered under Article 61.
• C. Correct. The power to make laws on divorce and marriage subjects lies with the Parliament of India, as these fall under the Union List.

Statements A and C are correct.

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39. Consider the following statements related to the drainage system of India.

A. Indian drainage system is the outcome of the evolutionary process of the three major physiographic units and nature and characteristics of precipitation.
B. Upheaval of the Himalayas, when the northern flank of the peninsular block was subjected to subsidence and consequent trough faulting.
C. Slight tilting of the peninsular block from North-West to South-Eastern direction gave orientation to the entire drainage system towards the Bay of Bengal.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. A only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. A, B, and C

Answer: (4) A, B, and C

Explanation:

• A. Correct. The Indian drainage system has indeed evolved from the three major physiographic units: the Himalayas, the Northern Plains, and the Peninsular Plateau, influenced by the nature and characteristics of precipitation.
• B. Correct. The upheaval of the Himalayas and subsidence of the northern flank of the peninsular block are crucial factors in shaping the drainage system.
• C. Correct. The tilting of the peninsular block from Northwest to Southeast has caused the majority of Indian rivers to flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal.

All statements A, B, and C are correct.

40. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Rivers name)	List-II (Waterfall formed by them)
A. Lakshmana Tirtha	i. Kunchikal
B. Aghanashini	ii. Unchalli
C. Varahi	iii. Magod
D. Bedti	iv. Iruppu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
2. A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
3. A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
4. A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv

Answer: (1) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii

Explanation:

• A. Lakshmana Tirtha – Iruppu Falls (iv)
• B. Aghanashini – Unchalli Falls (ii)
• C. Varahi – Kunchikal Falls (i)
• D. Bedti – Magod Falls (iii)

Correct matching is A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii.

Answer 2

41. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Rivers name)	List-II (States with boundaries formed by River)
A. Vedavati	i. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
B. Kabini / Kapila	ii. Kerala and Karnataka
C. Cauvery	iii. Maharashtra and Karnataka
D. Bhima	iv. Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
2. A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
3. A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii
4. A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii

Answer: (3) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii

Explanation:

• A. Vedavati – Telangana and Andhra Pradesh (i)
• B. Kabini / Kapila – Tamil Nadu and Karnataka (iv)
• C. Cauvery – Kerala and Karnataka (ii)
• D. Bhima – Maharashtra and Karnataka (iii)

Correct matching is A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii.

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42. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Kumri cultivation in India?

A. It is a form of shifting cultivation practiced in Karnataka before independence.
B. It was banned in 1890.
C. It was limited to the areas administered by Madras presidency that are parts of Karnataka state now.
D. Mostly commercial crops are grown in Kumri cultivation and supplied as raw materials to British administration.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B are correct
2. A and C are correct
3. A, B, and D are correct
4. B and C are correct

Answer: (1) A and B are correct

Explanation:

• A. Correct. Kumri is a form of shifting cultivation that was practiced in parts of Karnataka before independence.
• B. Correct. Kumri cultivation was banned in 1890.
• C. Incorrect. Kumri was not limited only to the areas administered by the Madras presidency. It was also practiced in other parts.
• D. Incorrect. Kumri cultivation involved the cultivation of subsistence crops, not primarily commercial crops for the British.

Statements A and B are correct.

43. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Drainage Patterns)	List-II (Physical Features)
A. Dendritic	i. Narmada & Tapi valleys
B. Radial	ii. Central Highlands
C. Pinnate	iii. Indo-Gangetic Plains
D. Trellis	iv. Peninsular Region

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
2. A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
3. A - i, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii
4. A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i

Answer: (4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i

Explanation:

• A. Dendritic – Indo-Gangetic Plains (iii)
• B. Radial – Peninsular Region (iv)
• C. Pinnate – Central Highlands (ii)
• D. Trellis – Narmada & Tapi valleys (i)

Correct matching is A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i.

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44. Match the following ethnic groups correctly matched with their location country.

Ethnic Group	Country
A. Maasai	i. Tanzania, Kenya
B. Sami	ii. Sweden, Norway
C. Inca	iii. Peru, Bolivia
D. Chin	iv. Myanmar, India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and D only
2. A, B, and C only
3. A, B, and C only
4. A, B, C, and D

Answer: (4) A, B, C, and D

Explanation:

• A. Maasai – Tanzania, Kenya (i)
• B. Sami – Sweden, Norway (ii)
• C. Inca – Peru, Bolivia (iii)
• D. Chin – Myanmar, India (iv)

All options are correctly matched.

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45. Which of the following options with crop production and countries are incorrectly matched?

A. Largest producer of groundnut – China
B. Largest producer of rice – Indonesia
C. Largest producer of cotton – India
D. Largest producer of maize – Ukraine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D only
2. C and D only
3. B, C, and D only
4. A, B, C, and D

Answer: (3) B, C, and D only

Explanation:

• A. China is indeed one of the largest producers of groundnut, so this is correctly matched.
• B. Indonesia is not the largest producer of rice; China and India are the largest producers.
• C. India is a major producer of cotton, but the largest producer can vary year to year between India, China, and the USA.
• D. Ukraine is not the largest producer of maize; the USA is the largest producer.

Options B, C, and D are incorrectly matched.

Comments

Question no.41) 

Answer is

A) ವೇಧಾವತಿ ನದಿಯು ಕರ್ನಾಟಕದ ಬಳ್ಳಾರಿ ಜಿಲ್ಲೆಯನ್ನು ಮತ್ತು ಆಂಧ್ರಪ್ರದೇಶದ ಕರ್ನೂಲ್ ಜಿಲ್ಲೆಯನ್ನು ಬೇರ್ಪಡಿಸುತ್ತದೆ. 

B) ಕಬಿನಿ/ಕಪಿಲ ನದಿಯು ಕರ್ನಾಟಕದ ಮೈಸೂರು ಜಿಲ್ಲೆಯನ್ನು ಮತ್ತು ಕೇರಳದ ವಯನಾಡ್ ಜಿಲ್ಲೆಯನ್ನು ಬೇರ್ಪಡಿಸುತ್ತದೆ. 

C) ಕಾವೇರಿ ನದಿಯು ಕರ್ನಾಟಕದ ಚಾಮರಾಜನಗರ ಜಿಲ್ಲೆಯನ್ನು ಮತ್ತು ತಮಿಳುನಾಡಿನ ಕ್ರೀಷ್ಣಗಿರಿ ಜಿಲ್ಲೆ ಹಾಗೂ ಧರ್ಮಪುರಿ ಜಿಲ್ಲೆಗಳನ್ನು ಬೇರ್ಪಡಿಸುತ್ತದೆ. 

D) ಭೀಮಾ ನದಿಯು ಕರ್ನಾಟಕದ ವಿಜಯಪುರ ಜಿಲ್ಲೆಯನ್ನು ಮತ್ತು ಮಹಾರಾಷ್ಟ್ರದ ಸೊಲ್ಲಾಪೂರ್ ಜಿಲ್ಲೆಯನ್ನು ಬೇರ್ಪಡಿಸುತ್ತದೆ.