KPSC KAS PRELIMS 2024 PAPER 1 PART 2

Question

16. Match the following organisations with reports/index produced by them:

Organisations	Reports / Index
A. Real Estate Regulation Authority	Global Real Estate Transparency Index
B. NITI Aayog	SATH-E Report Systemic Transformation of School Education
C. IMF	Global Trade Outlook and Statistics
D. World Bank	Global Economic Prospects

Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

1. A only
2. A and C
3. B and D
4. B, C, and D

Answer: (3) B and D

Explanation:

• A. Incorrect. The Global Real Estate Transparency Index is published by JLL, not RERA.
• B. Correct. NITI Aayog publishes the SATH-E Report.
• C. Incorrect. The IMF does not publish the Global Trade Outlook and Statistics.
• D. Correct. The World Bank publishes the Global Economic Prospects.

Thus, B and D are correct, making option (3) the right answer.

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17. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) 2003?

A. The FRBM Act made it mandatory for the Government to place Long Term Fiscal Policy Statement, Microeconomic Framework Statement, and Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement along with the Union Budget documents in Parliament annually.
B. The FRBM Act proposed that revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, tax revenue, and the total outstanding liabilities be projected as a percentage of Gross State Domestic Product (GDP) in the medium-term fiscal policy statement.
C. Under no circumstances can the set targets of fiscal deficits and revenue be exceeded.
D. After the enactment of FRBM Act, Government has met the targets only twice till now.

Options:

1. Only one statement is correct
2. Only two statements are correct
3. Only three statements are correct
4. None of the above

Answer: (2) Only two statements are correct

Explanation:

• A. Correct. The FRBM Act requires the presentation of these documents annually.
• B. Incorrect. The Act focuses on national GDP, not state GDP.
• C. Incorrect. The Act allows deviations under specific circumstances.
• D. Correct. The government has met the targets only a few times.

Thus, only A and D are correct, making option (2) the right answer.

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18. Consider the following statements about India's electronics export:

A. Karnataka was India’s largest exporter of electronic goods in FY23, accounting for 30% of all electronic goods exports from India in FY24.
B. The share of the electronic goods sector in India’s overall exports has more than doubled in recent years.
C. Exports of smartphones currently forms close to 40% of India’s electronics exports.
D. U.S.A. and China are the biggest markets for India’s electronic goods exports.
E. In the last two financial years, close to 40% of smartphones in India were sent out from Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu.

Which of the following statements are correct?

1. A, B, and D
2. B and D
3. A, C, and E
4. B, C, and E

Answer: (3) A, C, and E

Explanation:

• A. Correct. Karnataka is a major electronics export hub.
• B. Incorrect. The doubling of the sector's share may be exaggerated.
• C. Correct. Smartphones form a large part of electronics exports.
• D. Incorrect. China is not a major market for India's electronic goods exports.
• E. Correct. Kanchipuram is a significant hub for smartphone exports.

Thus, A, C, and E are correct, making option (3) the right answer.

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19. Consider the following statements:

A. Software and business services together constitute more than 60% of India’s total services exports.
B. The National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) is based on the principle of ‘asset creation through monetisation’.
C. As per the BIS Triennial Central Bank Survey 2022, the INR accounted for more than 2% of the global forex turnover.

Options:

1. Only one statement is incorrect
2. Only two statements are incorrect
3. All three statements are incorrect
4. All statements are correct

Answer: (2) Only two statements are incorrect

Explanation:

• A. Correct. Software and business services are significant contributors to India's services exports.
• B. Incorrect. The NMP focuses on monetising existing assets, not creating new ones.
• C. Incorrect. The INR accounts for much less than 2% of global forex turnover.

Thus, only A is correct, making option (2) the right answer.

20. What is a key characteristic of fabless manufacturing in the semiconductor industry?

A. It involves companies that own and operate their own semiconductor fabrication plants.

B. It designs and markets semiconductors while outsourcing hardware's fabrication to a third-party foundry.

C. It focuses on in-house production of semiconductor materials and components.

D. It involves the integration of hardware and software in semiconductor production.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A and D

B only

B and C

A, C, and D

Answer: (2) B only

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

A. It involves companies that own and operate their own semiconductor fabrication plants.

Incorrect. Fabless manufacturing companies do not own or operate semiconductor fabrication plants. Instead, they focus on design and marketing while outsourcing the actual fabrication process to specialized foundries.

B. It designs and markets semiconductors while outsourcing hardware's fabrication to a third-party foundry.

Correct. This is the core characteristic of fabless manufacturing. Companies in this model design the semiconductor chips but rely on third-party foundries (like TSMC) to manufacture the physical chips.

C. It focuses on in-house production of semiconductor materials and components.

Incorrect. Fabless companies do not focus on in-house production of semiconductor materials; they outsource the fabrication part to foundries.

D. It involves the integration of hardware and software in semiconductor production.

Incorrect. While fabless companies may design hardware and could also work on related software, the term "fabless" specifically refers to the absence of in-house fabrication, not the integration of hardware and software.

Conclusion:

The correct statement is B, which accurately describes fabless manufacturing. Therefore, the correct answer is (2) B only.

Answer 1

21. Which are correct statements regarding the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002?

A. It provides children a fundamental right to free and compulsory education.
B. Article 21A of the Constitution has been introduced under this Act.
C. It provides the substitution of Article 45A of the Constitution.
D. In Article 51A, a new clause (k) has been added under this Act.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B, and C only
2. A, B, and D only
3. A and D only
4. A, C, and D only

Answer: (2) A, B, and D only

Explanation:

• A. Correct. The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, which provides the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• B. Correct. Article 21A was indeed introduced by this amendment.
• C. Incorrect. The amendment does not substitute Article 45A but rather modifies Article 45 to provide early childhood care and education for children below the age of six years.
• D. Correct. A new clause (k) was added to Article 51A, making it a fundamental duty of parents to provide education to their children aged 6 to 14 years.

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22. Arrange the following Chief Justices of Karnataka High Court in chronological order.

A. Justice P.V. Reddi
B. Justice B. Majumdar
C. Justice R.P. Sethi
D. Justice Y.R. Bhaskar Rao

Options:

1. A, B, C, D
2. B, A, C, D
3. D, B, C, A
4. B, C, D, A

Answer: (4) B, C, D, A

Explanation:

• The correct chronological order of the Chief Justices is:
  • B. Justice B. Majumdar
  • C. Justice R.P. Sethi
  • D. Justice Y.R. Bhaskar Rao
  • A. Justice P.V. Reddi

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23. From which Country, the Constitution of India has borrowed the Election process of the members to the Rajya Sabha on the basis of proportional representation by the State Legislatures?

1. Australia
2. South Africa
3. Canada
4. Germany

Answer: (2) South Africa

Explanation:

• The system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote used in the election of members to the Rajya Sabha has been borrowed from the Constitution of South Africa.

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24. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
2. Proclamation of State Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
3. Proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
4. The impeachment resolution of the President is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the present members of both the Houses of Parliament.

Answer: (3) Proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.

Explanation:

• 1. Incorrect. The Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved within one month, not two months.
• 2. Incorrect. The Proclamation of State Emergency must also be approved within two months, not one month.
• 3. Correct. The Proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses within two months.
• 4. Incorrect. The impeachment resolution of the President requires a two-thirds majority of the total membership of each House, not just the present members.    

  25. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the 106th (one hundred and sixth) Constitutional Amendment Act?

  A. It provides for reservation of seats for women in the House of People and the State Legislative Assembly.
  B. It also provides for reservation of seats for women in the legislative assembly of National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
  C. The reservation will come into effect immediately after the delimitation exercise done based on the first Census after this amendment.
  D. The reservation shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of 15 years from the commencement.

  Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. All the statements are correct
  2. Only 3 statements are correct
  3. Only 2 statements are correct
  4. Only one statement is correct

  Answer: (3) Only 2 statements are correct

  Explanation:

  • A. Incorrect. The 106th Amendment does not specifically deal with the reservation of seats for women in the House of People and State Legislative Assemblies.
  • B. Incorrect. The amendment doesn't mention reservation in the legislative assembly of NCT of Delhi.
  • C. Correct. The amendment talks about the reservation coming into effect after the delimitation exercise.
  • D. Correct. The reservation is indeed set to cease after 15 years from the commencement.

Comments

21. Which are correct statements regarding the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002?

A. It provides children a fundamental right to free and compulsory education.
B. Article 21A of the Constitution has been introduced under this Act.
C. It provides the substitution of Article 45A of the Constitution.
D. In Article 51A, a new clause (j) has been added under this Act.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B, and C only

2. A, B, and D only

3. A and B only

4. A, C, and D only

Answer: 3. A and B only

Explanation:

• A. Correct. The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, which provides the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years.

• B. Correct. Article 21A was indeed introduced by this amendment.

• C. Incorrect. The amendment does not substitute Article 45A but rather modifies Article 45 to provide early childhood care and education for children below the age of six years.

• D. Incorrect. The amendment added a new clause (k) (not j) in Article 51A, making it a fundamental duty of parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years.

Answer 2

26. Which of the following statements is/are wrong with reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

A. His/her term of office is 6 years or up to the age of 65 whichever is earlier.
B. He/she holds the office till the pleasure of the President of India since he/she is appointed by the President.
C. His/her salary and conditions of services shall be statutory.
D. He audits and reports all the expenditure from the consolidated fund of India, contingent fund of India, and Government companies also.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. All the statements are wrong
2. Only three statements are wrong
3. Only two statements are wrong
4. Only one statement is wrong

Answer: (3) Only two statements are wrong

Explanation:

• A. Correct. The term is indeed 6 years or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
• B. Incorrect. The CAG does not hold office till the pleasure of the President; the office has fixed tenure, and the CAG can only be removed by a process similar to the removal of a Supreme Court judge.
• C. Correct. The salary and conditions of services of the CAG are indeed statutory and are not subject to the discretion of the executive.
• D. Correct. The CAG audits and reports on the expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, Contingent Fund, and Public Accounts as well as government companies.

Statements B and D are correct, making two statements incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is (3) Only two statements are wrong.

27. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court recognized the right to profession and work as a profession?

1. Laxmibai Chandaragi vs. State of Karnataka
2. Hussainara Khatoon & Others vs. State of Madhya Pradesh
3. Budhdev Karmaskar vs. State of West Bengal
4. State of Haryana vs. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (3) Budhdev Karmaskar vs. State of West Bengal

Explanation:

• The Supreme Court in Budhdev Karmaskar vs. State of West Bengal recognized the right to work as a profession, particularly in the context of sex workers, under Article 21 of the Constitution.

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28. For which of the following committees of the constituent assembly, Dr. Rajendra Prasad served as Chairman?

A. Rules of Procedure Committee
B. Steering Committee
C. Finance and Staff Committee
D. Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag
E. Committee on the functioning of the Constituent Assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, and D are correct
2. A, B, C, and E are correct
3. A, C, D, and E are correct
4. B, C, D, and E are correct

Answer: (2) A, B, C, and E are correct

Explanation:

• Dr. Rajendra Prasad served as Chairman for the Rules of Procedure Committee, Steering Committee, Finance and Staff Committee, and the Committee on the Functioning of the Constituent Assembly. He was not the Chairman of the Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag.

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29. Consider the score of a recognised political party with a seat of 100. Year of General Election to the State Assembly 2016 and 2021.

Performance of Political Party A

• Won 15 seats and secured 8% of the total valid votes polled
• Won 4 seats

Performance of Political Party B

• Won 3 seats and secured 5% of the total valid votes polled
• Won 2 seats

As per the available guidelines regarding the recognition of political parties, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Both the political parties will become recognized parties in 2016 and will lose recognition as recognized parties in 2021 also.
2. Both the political parties will become state-recognized parties in 2016 and will lose recognition in 2021.
3. Only Party A will become recognized in 2016 and it will continue its recognition as a state party in 2021 also.
4. Both the political parties will become state-recognized parties in 2016 but only Party A will continue its recognition as a state party in 2021 where Party B will lose its recognition in 2021.

Answer: (4) Both the political parties will become state-recognized parties in 2016 but only Party A will continue its recognition as a state party in 2021 where Party B will lose its recognition in 2021.

Explanation:

• Political Party A secured 8% of the total valid votes in 2016 and won 15 seats, which qualifies it as a state-recognized party. It continued to meet the criteria in 2021, allowing it to maintain its recognition.
• Political Party B secured 5% of the votes and 3 seats in 2016, enough to become recognized in 2016. However, it did not meet the criteria in 2021 (2 seats and likely below the required vote percentage), so it lost its recognition as a state party.

30. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Permanent Lok Adalat?

A. The permanent Lok Adalat were set up after the Lok Adalat Act, 2002.
B. It is mainly based on the alternate dispute resolution mechanism mainly compromise or the settlement between the parties.
C. It is having the jurisdiction in respect of any matter relating to an offence even non-compoundable offence also.
D. Public utility services are kept outside the purview of Lok Adalat.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. All the statements are correct
2. Only three statements are correct
3. Only two statements are correct
4. Only one statement is correct

Answer: (3) Only two statements are correct

Explanation:

• A. Incorrect. Permanent Lok Adalats were established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, not the Lok Adalat Act, 2002.
• B. Correct. Permanent Lok Adalats focus on alternative dispute resolution through compromise and settlement.
• C. Incorrect. Permanent Lok Adalats do not have jurisdiction over non-compoundable offences, as these are serious criminal offences that cannot be settled through compromise.
• D. Correct. Public utility services are within the purview of Permanent Lok Adalats, making this statement incorrect as well.

Statements B and D are correct.