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KPSC KAS PRELIMS 2024 PAPER 1 PART 1

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1. Who among the given personalities from Karnataka is related to the following statements?

A. Fought for Indian Freedom Movement and Karnataka Unification.
B. A noted writer and journalist.
C. The President of Kannada Sahitya Sammelana in 1938 and later became the Governor of Bihar.
D. Composed the book Antaratmanige.

Options:

  1. Ranganatha Ramanatha Diwakara
  2. Tagadooru Ramachandra Rao
  3. Mohare Hanumantharaya
  4. Nittru Srinivasa Rao

Answer: (2) Tagadooru Ramachandra Rao

Explanation:

  • A. Tagadooru Ramachandra Rao was a prominent freedom fighter who actively participated in the Indian Freedom Movement and was also involved in the Karnataka Unification movement.
  • B. He was a renowned writer and journalist in Karnataka, contributing significantly to Kannada literature and journalism.
  • C. Tagadooru Ramachandra Rao was indeed the President of the Kannada Sahitya Sammelana in 1938; however, he did not become the Governor of Bihar.
  • D. He composed the book Antaratmanige, a significant work in Kannada literature.

Therefore, Tagadooru Ramachandra Rao fits most of the statements provided, making option (2) the correct choice.

2. With reference to the Indian National Movement in Karnataka, consider the following:

A. The first session of Mysore Congress was held in Shivapura in 1938.
B. T. Siddalingayya was its President.
C. Around 1000 people participated.
D. He was arrested by the British after hoisting the flag.

How many of the above propositions are incorrect?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. None of the above

Answer: (2) Only two

Explanation:

  • A. Correct. The first session of the Mysore Congress was indeed held at Shivapura in 1938.
  • B. Correct. T. Siddalingayya was the President of this session.
  • C. Incorrect. The number of participants was much higher than 1000.
  • D. Incorrect. The flag hoisting did not immediately lead to T. Siddalingayya's arrest.

Since C and D are incorrect, the correct answer is (2) Only two.

3. With reference to the early freedom struggle in Karnataka, consider the following pairs:

Leaders/PeopleRegion
A. BedasHanagal
B. Venkatappa NayakaSurapura
C. Baba SahebNaragunda
D. Mundaragi Bhima RaoKoppal

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All of the above

Answer: (3) Only three

Explanation:

  • A. Incorrect. The Bedas (Berads) are more prominently associated with regions like Koppal, not Hanagal.
  • B. Correct. Venkatappa Nayaka was a ruler of Surapura.
  • C. Correct. Baba Saheb, also known as Bhaskar Rao Bhave of Naragunda, was a leader in the 1857 uprising.
  • D. Correct. Mundaragi Bhima Rao was a freedom fighter from Koppal.

Therefore, pairs B, C, and D are correct, making (3) Only three the correct answer.

4. The European traveller, who held that the Mughal Empire was leading towards a crisis because of the King's claim to ownership over all land was:

  1. Francisco Pelsaert
  2. Sir Thomas Roe
  3. Father Monserrate
  4. Francois Bernier

Answer: (4) Francois Bernier

Explanation:

  • Francois Bernier, a French traveler and physician, visited India during Aurangzeb's reign and documented the socio-economic conditions of the Mughal Empire. He criticized the system where the emperor claimed ownership of all land, arguing that it led to economic decline by discouraging investment and leading to exploitation.

None of the other options made similar observations about the Mughal Empire's land ownership system. Hence, the correct answer is Francois Bernier.

5. Which judgement of the Supreme Court declared transgenders as the ‘third community’ and ordered job applications to have a separate column for the third gender?

  1. National Legal Services Authority vs. Union of India
  2. Suresh Kumar Koushal vs. Naz Foundation
  3. Navtej Singh Johar & Ors vs. Union of India
  4. Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. vs. Union of India

Answer: (1) National Legal Services Authority vs. Union of India

Explanation:

  • In the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) vs. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court recognized transgender persons as the 'third gender' and ordered that job applications and official documents include a separate column for this category. This was a significant step towards equality and non-discrimination for transgender individuals in India.

The other cases listed do not directly address the recognition of transgender persons as the third gender. Therefore, the correct answer is (1).

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6. Arrange the following items with respect to the Union Budget in India in descending order (highest to lowest ₹ crore):

A. Revenue Expenditure
B. Capital Expenditure
C. Revenue Receipts
D. Capital Receipts

Options:

  1. A, C, D, B
  2. A, C, B, D
  3. C, A, D, B
  4. C, A, B, D

Answer: (1) A, C, D, B

Explanation:

  • A. Revenue Expenditure is generally the largest component, including items like salaries, pensions, and subsidies.
  • C. Revenue Receipts includes tax revenues and is usually the second largest.
  • D. Capital Receipts includes borrowings and disinvestment, typically smaller than revenue receipts.
  • B. Capital Expenditure is generally the smallest, involving spending on infrastructure and other long-term assets.

Thus, the correct descending order is A, C, D, B.

7. What effect does cost-push inflation have on the economy?

A. Increases real wages and boosts consumer purchasing power.
B. Encourages investment and stimulates economic growth.
C. Leads to higher unemployment rates and reduced consumer spending.
D. Decreases government spending and reduces inflationary pressures.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only one statement is correct
  2. Only two statements are correct
  3. Only three statements are correct
  4. None of the above

Answer: (1) Only one statement is correct

Explanation:

  • A. Incorrect. Cost-push inflation typically reduces real wages as prices rise.
  • B. Incorrect. It discourages investment due to rising costs and lower profits.
  • C. Correct. It leads to higher unemployment and reduced consumer spending.
  • D. Incorrect. It may not decrease government spending; inflationary pressures often persist.

Thus, only statement C is correct.

8. M3 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. It is also known as aggregate monetary resources. M3 is defined as the sum of which of the following?

A. Savings deposits with Post Office Savings Banks
B. Net time deposits of Commercial Banks
C. Total deposits with Post Office Savings Organizations
D. Currency
E. Net demand deposits held by Commercial Banks

Options:

  1. B, D, and E
  2. B, C, and D
  3. A, B, and C
  4. D and E

Answer: (1) B, D, and E

Explanation:

  • M3, or "Broad Money," includes:
    • B. Net time deposits of Commercial Banks
    • D. Currency in circulation
    • E. Net demand deposits held by Commercial Banks

Components A and C are not included in M3. Therefore, the correct answer is B, D, and E.

9. Which of the following is/are correct matches?

AB
A. Devaluation of a currencyImproves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in foreign countries
B. Credit rating agenciesRegulated by the Reserve Bank of India
C. Acquiring new technologyCapital expenditure

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None of the above

Answer: (2) Only two

Explanation:

  • A. Correct. Devaluation improves the competitiveness of exports.
  • B. Incorrect. Credit rating agencies are regulated by SEBI, not the RBI.
  • C. Correct. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.

Therefore, A and C are correct, making option (2) the right answer.

10. Which one of the following will be most inflationary?

  1. Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit.
  2. Increase in expenditure on public projects.
  3. Devaluation of a currency.
  4. Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit.

Answer: (4) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Explanation:

  • Creation of new money increases the money supply directly, leading to higher demand and higher prices, which is the most inflationary of the options listed.

Therefore, the correct answer is (4).

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11. To implement a contractionary monetary policy, RBI should not do which of the following?

A. Increase the Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
B. Decrease the Marginal Standing Facility Rate.
C. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. A and B
  2. A only
  3. B and C
  4. A, B, and C

Answer: (3) B and C

Explanation:

  • B. Decreasing the MSF rate would make borrowing cheaper, increasing the money supply, which is not contractionary.
  • C. Cutting rates would also increase the money supply, counter to contractionary policy goals.

Thus, B and C are correct, making option (3) the correct answer.

12. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure was launched by the Hon'ble Prime Minister of India during the United Nations Climate Action Summit on 23rd September 2019 in New York.

A. It is a global partnership of National Governments and UN agencies only.
B. A network will be developed to advance disaster resilient infrastructure in developing countries with a primary focus on India.

Which of the above statements is correct?

  1. A only
  2. B only
  3. Both A and B
  4. Neither A nor B

Answer: (2) B only

Explanation:

  • A. Incorrect. The partnership includes various stakeholders beyond just national governments and UN agencies.
  • B. Correct. The focus on developing countries, including India, aligns with the objectives of the Coalition.

Thus, the correct answer is (2) B only.

13. According to the Global Payments Report by Worldpay FIS, India’s e-commerce market is projected to post impressive gains and grow at 18 percent annually through 2025.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the growth of e-commerce industry in India?

A. E-commerce order volume growth in FY22 was driven mainly by consumers from tier-II and tier-III cities in the last two years.
B. Tier-I cities indicated a comparatively slower order volume growth rate compared to tier-II and tier-III cities.
C. Fiscal support during the pandemic helped boost e-commerce penetration in rural areas, likely by increasing consumption.

Options:

  1. A and B only
  2. C only
  3. A, B, and C
  4. None of the above

Answer: (3) A, B, and C

Explanation:

  • A. Correct. Tier-II and III cities have driven significant growth in e-commerce.
  • B. Correct. Growth in tier-I cities has slowed due to market saturation.
  • C. Correct. Fiscal support during the pandemic boosted rural e-commerce penetration.

All three statements are true, making option (3) the correct answer.

14. Consider the following statements:

A. The Reserve Bank of India links all ATMs in India.
B. Capital Adequacy Ratio is for each bank to decide and should be in the range provided by RBI.
C. Benchmark interest rates are decided by the Monetary Policy Committee of RBI.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Only one statement is correct
  2. Only two statements are correct
  3. All three statements are correct
  4. None of the above

Answer: (2) Only two statements are correct

Explanation:

  • A. Incorrect. The RBI does not directly link all ATMs; NPCI operates the National Financial Switch.
  • B. Correct. Banks must maintain the CAR within RBI's guidelines.
  • C. Correct. The MPC of the RBI decides key benchmark interest rates.

Thus, only statements B and C are correct, making option (2) the right answer.

15. Consider the following statements about RTE quota:

A. Amendment to RTE Act removed private schools from being recognized as ‘neighbourhood schools’ if there is a Government or a Government-aided school within the limits of any ward.
B. In the academic year 2024-25, there isn’t a single private school in Bengaluru that can give RTE quota seats.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. A only
  2. B only
  3. Both A and B
  4. Neither A nor B

Answer: (1) A only

Explanation:

  • A. Correct. The amendment restricts recognition of private schools as "neighbourhood schools" under certain conditions.
  • B. Incorrect. While availability may vary, it's unlikely that no private school in Bengaluru offers RTE quota seats.

Thus, the correct answer is (1) A only.

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